UNN Post UTME Past Questions & Answers for All Subjects (Authentic)

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Nature of UNN Post UTME Exam

For each subject, there will be 17 questions to answer 15 questions. This means you will answer a total of 60 questions for the exam.
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You are free to review your answers before you submit them.
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On getting to your computer, you will be required to input the passcode that was written on your acknowledgment slip during accreditation. Without that, you can’t log in
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UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for English Language

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UNN Post UTME Past Questions for English 2005/2006

COMPREHENSION

INSTRUCTION: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Development in electronic science has transformed the art of record-keeping in the modern age. Traditionally, records of events were kept only in people’s minds. It depended very much on the retentive power of the human memory. This was extremely dangerous as people either forgot events wholly or in part, or deliberately falsified details to suit their various interests. Interminable arguments were thus the order of the day. Even writing which replace mental recording was not entirely free from those shortcomings as untruths could be written as true records either willingly or inadvertently. With the advent of electronic memory, however, these dangers now show not only what happened, but also who did or aid what, including how and when.

1. The author believes that electronic recording is:
A. superior to mental recording
B. inferior to both mental recording and writing
C. superior to both mental and writing
D. inferior to only writing

2. The writer believes that the art of record keeping has:
A. Improved over the years
B. Endangered the art of writing
C. Changed human memory
D. Overcome all the problems facing it.

3. How many stages of development did the writer mention when discussing the art of record keeping?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

4. According to the author, human memory is unreliable because people
A. Die and we forget what they said
B. forget events or tell lies
C. do not always know when events happens
D. do not always know who did what and when

5. From the passage, we gather that writing is almost
A. As unreliable as human memory
B. As reliable as electronic memory
C. More reliable than electronic recording
D. Not to be compared to any other recording systems.

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

In question 6-7, the option that best explain the information conveyed in the sentence.

6. You are driving too fast for safety
A. That speed is all right and safety
B. That speed is not fast enough for safety
C. That speed is not entirely safe
D. You should drive faster to ensure safety

7. For all I care, the man may be dead
A. I am not sure the man is dead
B. I am not interested in his death
C. I very much care in case he is dead
D. I am ignorant if the man’s death

In each of question 8-11, choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the words in italics

8. The priest was invited to consecrate the new building.
A. Destroy B. Abuse C. Tarnish D. Pollute

9. A majority of those who sat for the last jamb examination are sanguine of success.
A. Hopeful B. Unsure C. Pessimistic D. Disheartened

10. When we woke up this morning, the sky was overcast.
A. Cloudy B. Consistently C. Clear D. Overtly

11. Enemies of progress covertly strife to understand the efforts of this administration.
A. Secretly B. Consistently C. Boldly D. Overtly

In each of question 12-15, fill the gap with the most appropriate option from the list following the gap.

12. The body is constantly under some …… that he is the best student in the class.
A. Elusion B. Delusion C. Illusion D. Allusion

13. Her parents did not approve her marriage two years ago because she has not reached her ……
A. Maturity B. Puberty C. majority D. Minority

14. Our teacher …… the importance of reading over our work before submission.
A. Emphasized B. Emphasized C. Lay emphasis on D. Put emphasis

15. Young men should not get mixed …… politics
A. In with B. Up with C. Up in D. On with

UNN Post UTME Answers 2005/06

COMPREHENSION

1. The author believes that electronic recording is superior to both mental and recording and writing. This is obvious from the last sentence of the passage: “the electronic memory …. Now show not only what happened, but also who did or said what, including how and when”. Ans. C

2. The writer believes that the art of record keeping has improved over the years. This can be deduced from the various stages of development mentioned in the passage. Each stage is an improvement on the preceding stage. Ans. A

3. The number of stages of development mentioned by the writer is three. i.e. mental recording, writing and electronic recording. Ans. B

4. According to the author, human memory is unreliable because people forget events or tell lies. This answer is found in the opening sentence of paragraph 2: “This (human memory) was extremely dangerous as people either forget event wholly or in part, or deliberately falsified details to suit their various interests ….” Ans. B

5. From the passage we gather that writing is as unreliable as human memory. The choice of this answer is informed by the following sentence: “Even writing which replaced mental recording was not entirely free from these shortcomings as untruths could be writing as true records other willingly or inadvertently” Ans. A

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

6. Ans. C – That speed is not entirely safe.

7. Ans. B – I am not interested in his death

8. Ans. D – Pollute

9. Ans. C – Pessimistic

10. Ans. C – Clear

11. Ans. D – Overtly

12. The boy is constantly under some delusion that is the best student in the class. Note that options A and D cannot be the answer. So we are left with potions B and C (i.e. illusion and delusion). Though the two words are similar, their meanings will help us to make a choice. Delusion – a false belief or opinion about yourself or your situation. Illusion – a false idea or belief, especially about something or about a situation. Ans. B

13. Her parents did not approve of her marriage two years ago because she has not reached her maturity. Ans. A

14. Our teacher emphasized the importance of reading over our work before submission. Ans. B

15. Young men should not get mixed up in politics. Ans. C

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. C

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for English 2006/2007

COMPREHENSION

INSTRUCTION: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The approach to the university is being restructured to ease the flow of traffic, give better security and provide an appropriate introduction to a seat of high learning. The works and services complex is also under construction, and we intend to move into the completed (Major) part of it within the next few weeks.

All these projects are being executed with an eye to aesthetics, for we recognize the important influence of a beautiful and healthy environment on its inhabitants and feel that a cluster of building on a small space such as we have, should be so well designed as to have a beneficial psychological and sociological effect on all members of the community.

I have gone to these length to itemize these examples of current development for two main reasons.

Firstly, to advise you that the road diversion and other physical inconveniences currently being experienced will be on the increase because of intense development activity. We therefore appeal to you to bear with us in full knowledge and consolation that such inconveniences are temporary and will soon yield final tangible results.

Secondly, to demonstrate our capacity for executing approved project with dispatch, and to assure government that we are up to the task.

Indeed, I can assure government that its ability to disburse funds to us will be more than matched by our capacity to collect and expand them on executing various worthy projects in record time.

1. From the passage, we can gather that
A. There in not much consideration for the health of the inhabitants.
B. There is deliberate efforts to inconvenience the people
C. Building are put up anyhow
D. Projects are carried out without approval
E. The inconveniences suffered by inhabitants will be for a while.

2. Unless it can be shown that money voted for projects can be spent on them in good time
A. The development will not be intense
B. It will not be easy to convince the government of our executive ability
C. It will not be difficult to ask government for funds
D. Our final result will be unreliable
E. The road diversion and other inconveniences will continue.

3. An eye on aesthetics in this passage means ……
A. Regard for space
B. Beneficial psychological effects
C. Regards for health
D. Consideration for beauty
E. A cluster of buildings.

4. In this passage, the author tries to explain why
A. It is necessary to establish the works and services complex in the university
B. Beauty should not taken into consideration when building on such a small space as we have.
C. The gateway to the university is being rebuilt.
D. A major part of the project should be completed in the next few weeks
E. Visitors should be debarred from using the gates in the meantime.

5. Which of these is NOT among the reasons given by the author for enumerating the examples of the current development?
A. To show that we are capable of executing approved projects
B. To convince the government that we can be trusted with tasks
C. The inconveniences currently being experienced will go on indefinitely
D. We are fully aware of the inconveniences being caused but we do not want you to complain
E. We have the capacity to complete worthy projects within the scheduled time.

In each of question 6-15, fill the gap with the most appropriate option from the list following the gap.

6. Some smugglers have created a road diversion in order to …… the new import duty.
A. Circumflex B. Circumscribe C. Circumspect D. Circumvent

7. It happened that our dog is male but …… are all females.
A. Their’s B. There’s C. Theirs’ D. Theirs

8. We can use the telephone; the lines are all ……
A. On B. Off C. Up D. Down

9. Ayayi cashed …… our boy’s defiance to score the equalizer
A. On B. In with C. In on D. In

10. I heard that Italy’s victory at the world cup …… the radio
A. In B. On C. Over D. From

11. He travels very often as if he does not know that a car runs ….. petrol.
A. With B. By C. On D. In

12. We were all delighted when the lady …… a bouncing baby boy.
A. Delivered B. Brought forth C. Gave birth to D. Was delivered of

13. Although the problem was simple …… students were able to solve it.
A. Few B. a few C. A lot of D. Little

14. Some students …… believed they can succeed in exams without working hard.
A. Many a times B. Many at time C. Many a time D. Many at times

15. The defendant claimed that he had been …… into making a statement.
A. Coerced B. Coaxed C. Coarsed D. Coerced

UNN Post UTME Answers for English 2006/2007

COMPREHENSION

1. From the passage, we can gather the inconveniences suffered by inhabitants will be for a while. Ans. E

2. Unless it can be shown that money voted for projects can be spent on them in good time, it will not be easy to convince the government of executive ability. Ans. B

3. An eye for aesthetics in the passage means consideration for beauty. Ans. D

4. In the passage, the author tries to explain why the gateway of the university is being rebuilt. Ans. C

5. The inconvenience currently being experienced will go on indefinitely. Ans. C

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

6. Some smugglers have create a road diversion in order to circumvent the new import duty. Ans. D

7. It happened that our dog is male but theirs are all female. Ans. D

8. We can use the telephone; the lines are all on. Ans. A

9. Ayayi cashed in on our boy’s defensive error to score the equalizer. Ans. C

10. I heard that Italy’s victory at the world cup on the radio. Ans. B

11. He travels very often as if he does not know that a car runs on petrol. Ans. C

12. We were all delighted when the lady was delivered of a bouncing baby boy. Ans. D

13. Although the problem was simple few students were able to solve it. Ans. A

14. Some students many a time believed they can succeed in exams without working hard. Ans. C

15. The defendant claimed that he had been coerced into making a statement. Ans. D

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS

1. E 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. C 15.

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UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for Mathematics

NB: Make sure you have taken the test/quiz above. If you have, then go ahead and download the UNN Post UTME Past Questions in PDF or just view it directly on this website.

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UNN POST UTME QUESTIONS FOR MATHEMATICS 2005/2006

Find n if 31410 – 2567 = 340n
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
What is the difference between 1.867551 correct to four significant figures and 1.867551 correct to four decimal places?
A. 5×10^-3
B. 4×10^-4
C. 5×10^-4
D. 10×10^-3
In an examination, all the candidates offered at least one of English and French, if 52% offered French and 65% offered English, what percentage offered French only?
A. 17
B. 35%
C. 48%
D. 45%
Simplify 6𝑥² +5𝑥² / 2𝑥²+𝑥−3
A. 3x-1
B. 1-3x
C. 3x+1
D. –(3×1)
Find the range of value of x satisfying the inequalities 2x – 5< 7 and 25 + 2x > 15
A. 5<x<6
B. -5<×<6
C. -6<×<5
D. -6<×<-5
If the 8^th term of an A.P is three times the second term and the sum of the first three terms is 18, find the first term of the A.P.
A.4
B. 2
C. 8
D. 3
Find the sum of infinity f the series 4+3 + 9/4+27/19+……
A.16
B. 16/3
C. 1
D. 8
A chord of a circle or radius 10cm is drawn 8cm from the center of circle. Find the length of the chord.
A. 6cm
B. 2√14𝑐m³
C. 12cm
D. √41𝑐m³
Find the equation of the line which passes through (-2,1) and is perpendicular to the line 4x-2y+1 = 0.
A. 2y-x-4 = 0
B. 2y + x = 0
C. 2y-x = 0
D. y-2x-5 = 0
If a is parallel to the line 2y-rx+4 = 0 and perpendicular to the line 4y+x-28 = 0, then the value of r is
A.4
B. 8
C. -8
D. -4
The distribution below shows the scores of sixty students in a class test. What percentage of the students scored at least 3?

A.60%
B. 36%
C. 66%
D. 40%
The first derivative of y = (2+3x)⁴ at x = -1 is
A.12
B. -12
C. 4
D. -4
The minimum value of (x) = x²-4x+5 in the interval [1, -1] is
A.-2
B. 10
C. 4
D. 5
The table below shows the marks scored by a group of students in a class test. If the mean score is 3.4, find x.

A.3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
A company is to select three different handset phones from five different types of Nokia brand and two different types of Samsung brand. In how many ways can the company choose the handsets, so as to include at least one Samsung brand?A.15
B. 25
C. 35
D. 45

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR MATHEMATICS 2005/2006

1. 314₁₀-256₇ = 340_n
314¹⁰ (2×7²+5×7¹ + 6×7⁰) = 3x
n² + 4×n¹+0×n
314-139 = 3n² + 4n
3n² + 4n-175 = 0
(n – 7) (n + 25/2) = 0
n = 7 or n = -25/2 (impossible)
∴ n = 7 (Ans. A)

2. 1.867551 to 4 sign. Fig. = 10868
1.867551 to 4 d.p. = 1.8676
Difference: 1.868-1.8676 = 0.0004 = 4×10^-4
Ans. B

5. 2x-5<7 and 25+2x>15
2x<12 and 2x>-10
X<6 and 2x> – 10(or x >-5)
-5< × <6
Ans. B

6. U₈ = 3U₂, S3 = 18, U₁ =?
a +7d = 3(a+d)→a + 7d = 3a + 3d
→ a +7d-3a – 3d = 0
→ 2a + 4d = 0→ 2a-4d = 0 ….. (1)
Sn = 𝑛/2 [2𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑]
𝑆₃ = 18 = 3/2 [2𝑎 + (3 − 1)𝑑]
→2a + 2d = (18×2)/3
→2a + 2d = 12
∴ 𝑎 + 𝑑 = 6 … … … … (2)
From equation (2), a = 6-d
Substitute 6 – d for a into equation (1), 2(6-d) – 4d = 0
→ 12 – 2d – 4d = 0 → -6d = -12 ∴ 𝑑 = 2
Hence, a + 2 = 6 → a = 6-2 = 4
U₁ = a = 4
Ans. A

7. 𝑆_∞ 𝑎/( 1−𝑟) ; 𝑟 = 𝑟[ (9/4) / 3] ; 𝑎 = 4
𝑆_∞ = 4 / (1 − 3/ 4) = 16 → 𝑆∞ = 16
Ans. A

9. Equation of the given line is
4x – y + 1 = 0
i.e. y = 2x + ½
Gradient of the line, m₁ = 2
Let the gradient of the perpendicular line be m₂. For perpendicular lines, m₁m₂ = -1→m₂ = -1/m
M₂ = 1/2 through (-2,1)
Hence, the required equation is y – 1 = -1/2 [x – (-2)]
y – 1 = -1/2(x + 2) or 2y + x = 0
Ans. B

10. Line 1 is 2y-rx+4i.e. y= r/2x – 2
Line 2 is 4y + x – 28 = 0 i.e. y =1/4x+7
Gradient of line 1 =m₁r/4 gradient of line 2 = M₂ = ¼
If line 1 and line 2 are perpendicular, then m₁m₂ = -1
→ 𝑟/2 x (−1/4) = −1 → 𝑟 = 8
Ans. B

11. No of student that scored at least 3 = 16 + 12 + 8 = 36 students
Total no of students = 60
Percentage that scored at least 3 = 36/60 × 100% = 60%
Ans. A

12. Y = (2 + 3x)⁴
= 4(2 + 3x)³.3 =12 (2 + 3x)³
At x =-1, = 12(2+3(-1)3=-12)
Ans. B

13. F(x) = x2-4x + 5
f’(x) = 2x – 4
In the interval [1,1], f’(x) = 2(1) – 4 = -2
Ans. A

14.

Score (x)	Frequency (f)	Fx
1	3	3
2	6	12
3	7	21
5	X	5x
6	4	24
	∑𝑓 = 20 + 𝑥	∑𝑓𝑥 = 60 + 5𝑥

Mean = ∑ 𝑓𝑥 / ∑ 𝑓 = 3.4 → (60+5𝑥)/ (20+𝑥) = 3.4
60+5x = 3.4 (20 + x) →60 + 5x = 68 + 3.4x
5x – 3.4 = 68-60 → 1.6x = 8
Therefore, x = 5
Ans. C

15. No of Nokia bran = 5, No of Samsung brand = 2 if 3 different handset phones are to be selected and at least 1 Samsung brand must be selected and at least 1 Samsung brand must be included, then it is either they select 2 Nokia brand from 5 and 2 Samsung brand from 2.

That is, ⁵C₂ x ²C₁ or ⁵C₁ x ²C₂ = 10×2+5×1=20+5=25 ways. Ans. B

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS (MATHEMATICS 2005/2006)

1. A 2.B. 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.B 11.A 12.B 13.1 14.C 15.B

UNN POST UTME QUESTIONS FOR MATHEMATICS 2007/2008

Express 8×10^-6 +2×10^-5 as a fraction
A.1/4 B. 3/2
C. 2/5 D. 1/5
Find the values of x for which 2^2x+3+ 33 × 2x + 4 = 0
A. x=2, x= -3
B. x=-2, x= 3
C. x=4, x=1/8
D. x=2, x=3
If 260₉ ÷ 100₂ = 66_n, find n
A.7 B. 9
C. 10 D. 8
Find the values of x such that

A. x=y=2
B. x=2, y=-2
C. x=12, y=2
D. x=y=-2
A chord of a circle of radius 13cm is drawn 5cm from the centre of the circle. Find the length of the chord.
A. 12cm B.24cm
C. 18cm D. √194cm
If x-2 is a factor of px³ + 2x²-2p+12, find the value of p.
A. 8/5 B. -10/3
C. 2 D. -2
In a regular pentagon ABCDE, AC intersects BD at P. calculate < CPD.
A.108^° B. 36^°
C. 72^° D. 48^°
The table above shows the marks obtained by a student in an examination. If the total mark obtained is 300, what is the angle corresponding to the mark obtained in Chemistry if the information is represented in a pie chart?
A.120° B.144°
C. 48° D. 108°
A ladder 17m rests against a vertical wall so that its foot is 8.5m from the wall. Find the angle of inclination of the ladder to the horizontal floor.
A.30° B.45°
C. 60° D. 55
A.0 B. 5
C. D. 1
If 𝑑𝑦/𝑑𝑥 = 6x-3 and y(-1) = 8, find y (x)
A.3x²-3x-8 B. 3x²-3x+8
C. 3x²-3x-2 D. 3x²-3x+2
The minimum of the function f(x) = 2x²-12x + 5 is
A.59 B. -59
C.3 D. -3
A basket contains 5 MTN cards, 6 GLO cards, 3 MTEL cards and 6 Vmobiles cards. What is the probability that a card selected from the basket at random will be MTN or MTEL card?
A. 3/20 B. ¾
C. ¼ D. 2/5
Find the range of the numbers 1/3, ½, 3/5, 4/5, 2/3, 6/7, 8/9
A.7/27 B.13/45
C. 9/5 D. 5/9
If the mean of the numbers 4, 3, 5, x, 7, is 5, find the variance:
A.2 B.10
C.√2 D. 5

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR MATHEMATICS 2007/2008

1. 8 × 10⁶ ÷ 2 × 10⁻⁵
= 8/10⁶ ÷ 2/10⁵
= 8/10⁶ × 10⁵/2
= 8/2 × 10⁵/10⁶
= 4/10
= 2/5
Ans. C

2. 2^2x+3 – 33 × 2^x + 4 = 0
2^2x × 2³ – 33 × 2^x + 4 = 0
8 × (2^x)² – 33(2^x) + 4 = 0
Let 2^x = p
8p²-33p + 4 = 0
(8p-1) (p-4) = 0
P = 1/8 or p = 4
But = p = 1/8
= 8^-1 = 2^-3 × = -3 OR
= p = 4 = 2², x = 2
∴ 𝑥 = 2 𝑜𝑟 − 3
𝑨𝒏𝒔. A

4. 2x-7y = 10…………(1)
3x + ½x = -7……….(2)
Solving equations 1 and 2
Simultaneously gives x = -2 and y = -2
Ans. D

6. Let f(x) = px³ + 2x² – 2p + 12
If x-2 is a factor of f(x), f(2) = 0
F(2) = p(2)³ + 2(2)² – 2p + 12 = 0
8p + 8 – 2p + 12 = 0
8p – 2p + 12 = 0
6p = -20
P = -20/6 = -10/3
Ans. B

7. A regular pentagon has five equal sides and all the angles are equal. Sum of interior angles = (2n – 4) × 90^o
Where n = 5, sum of interior angles = [(2 × 5)4] × 90^o = 540
Therefore, each angle = 540^o/5 = 108^o
Required angle = 180^o – 108^o = 72^o
Ans. C

8. 95 + 2x + 10 + x + 75 = 300
3x + 180 = 300
3x = 300 – 180 = 120
X = 120/3 = 40
Mark obtained in chemistry = 2x + 40 = 2 × 40 + 10 = 90
Angle of mark = =90/300 x 360^o = 108^o
Ans. D

Ans. B

12. 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 2 − 12𝑥 −5 ?
𝑓(𝑥) = 4𝑥 − 12 = 0?
4𝑥 − 12 = 0
4𝑥=12
𝑥=3
Ans. C

13. 𝑀𝑇𝑁 Cards = 5,
Glo Cards = 6,
MTEL Cards =3,
Vmobile Cards = 6
Total Cards = 20
Prob (MTN or MTEL) = 5/20
= 8/20
= 2/5
Ans D

14. 𝑅𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 = 8/9 − 1/3
= 5/9
Ans D

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS (MATHEMATICS 2007/2008)

1.C 2.A 3.D 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.C 8.D 9.B. 10.B 11.D 12.C 13.D 14.D 15.A

[/lightweight-accordion] [lightweight-accordion title=”LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH”]

UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for Literature in English

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UNN Post UTME Past Questions for Literature-In- English 2005/2006

Indicate the correct option I each following questions.

1. In Bennis Brutus’s “a troubadour Travserse,” the poet
A. Sees his country as wild and undeveloped.
B. Loves his country in spite of the difficulties he faces there.
C. Hates his country because it is run by dictators.
D. Does not care about what happens to his country.

2. Ofeimun’s “we must learn to fly”
A. Expresses hope in the future
B. Pretends that all is well with his country
C. Urges the reader to accepts his misfortunes
D. Blames foreigners for the problems of his peoples.

3. In Moton’s “on his blindness” the poet
A. Expresses a deep anger with God for making him blind
B. Believes that anyone who goes blind must beg.
C. State that even with blindness one can still serve God
D. Believes that blindness is a just punishment for sin.

4. In Kela’s “on the grasshopper and crib” the poet
A. Sees these insect as nuisance which should be eradicated.
B. Emphasizes that each is active in different time of day.
C. Describes the difference in the physical features
D. Establishes the fact that the insect lives on nectar

SECTION B

5. “And their sun does never shine and their fields are bleak and bare. And their ways are filled with thorn it is eternal winter there” Blake

The dominant literary device employ in the above lines is
A. Apostrophe
B. Allusion
B. Simile
D. Repetition

6. “Cruelty has a human heart and jealously human terror

From the lines above Blake’s perspective on man is
A.        inspiring
B.        hopeful
C.        gloomy
D.        fortunate

7. “The curfew tells the knell of parting day.
The lowing heard wind slowly over.
The plowman homeward plods the way, and leaves the world to darkling me” – Gray.

The time of the capture in the lines above is:
A. Early morning B. mid-afternoon
C. Sunday D. evening

8.”Air love let us be true
To one another for the world which seem
To lie before us like a land of drams
So various, so beautiful, so new
Hath really better joy, nor love, nor light
Nor certificate nor peace not help from pans…”

The tone or mood expressed in the lines above is
A. Optimistic B. elated
C. Melancholic D. expectant

SECTION C: DRAMA AND FICTION

Question 9-10 are based on Thomas Hardy’s Tess of the D’ Urbervilles”

9. John Durbeyfield’s action of ordering a carriage on learning of his noble ancestor instead of walking home shows that
A. He will become a night like his ancestors.
B. He has inherited a great fortune
C. He is rather foolish and easily carried away
D. He will soon become the May of Mariot

10. “daze my eyes…” said Durbeyfield, “and here have I been knock lug about you after year, form pillar to post, as if he is more than the commonest feller in the parish…”

From the statement above, the reader can deduce that the society in which Durbeyfield lives is
A.        Very rural and undeveloped
B.        Class consciously
C.        Oppressive
D.        Superstitious

Questions 11-12 are based on William Shakespeare’s Hamlet”

11.       When Ophelia tells her father hamnlet’s love interest in her, he
A.        decides to send Ophelia to England
B.        Ask the queen to speak to hamlet and encourage him.
C.        Tells Ophelia to stop further contact with hamlet
D.        Encourage Ophelia to love hamlet

12. Polonius: yet here Laeters? Aboani, boar for shame!.
The wind fits in the shoulder of your sail and your are stayed for Polonius is sending his son to
A. Witterenberg B. Sweden
C. Ireland D. France

SECTION D. GENERAL LITERARY PRINCIPLE

13.       A literary work which is a mocking unit of anoteh work is called
A.        A copy-write           B. a slander
C. pornography              D. a parody

14. A literary work whose meaning can be understood at two different levels is called
A. biography B. epic
C. free verse D. allegory

15. A subordinate or minor multiple running through a work of fiction is called
A. an underdevelopment
B. an understatement
C. parallelism
D. subplot

LITERATURE 2005/06 ANSWER

1. B 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.C 7.D 8.C 9.C 10.B 11.C 12.D 13.D 14.D 15.D

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for Literature-In- English 2006/2007

Questions 1-3 are based on “the search” by Chukwuemeka Ike.

1. The novel. The search by Chukwuemeka Ike can be described as a ….
A. Fiction B. non-fiction
C. Historical novel D. biography

2. The theme of the novel is
A. The Nigeria civil war
B. The devastating effect of ethnic religious Chauvism and national integration and stability.
C. The arrogance of the Moslem Hausa/Fulani ruling class
D. Why people in coup D’etat in religion

3. The greatest obstacle that Oka Akigba thinks stands between him and full integration with the whole northern elites is.
A.        His ability to speak Hausa fluently
B.        His being married to a minority northern woman.
C.        His not belonging to Moslem religion
D.        His open condemnation of the northern

In questions 4 and 5, fiction is one of the three classifications in literature. The others are

4. A character B. poetry
C. tragedy D. comedy

5. A. drama B. plot
C. mime D. flask back

Questions 6 to 11 came form the poem below

Eat of this poem 1 offer
Like an apple
Fliched from the tree forbidden
Eat of it, swallow it sour wholesomeness
And your eyes will fast
Shed scales snakes mouth
Awake to the evil contraction
That emasculates the many agonizing
People and empowers few despoiling lords.

6. What figure of speech is contained in the live “eat of this poem 1 offer”?
A. Simile B. metaphor
C. euphemism D. irony

7. In the poem there is an allusion to
A. the way people enjoy eating apples
B. The enjoyment derivable form eating poems
C. the biblical apple eaten by Adam and eve
D. the danger posed by snake.

8. the poem can have the following effects on the reader except
A. creates awareness
B. gives pleasures
C. warns of the dangers of snakebites
D. highlights the class difference in Nigeria

9. The expression “the tree forbidden” line an example of
A. allusion B. metaphor
C. simile D. Synecdoche

10. What sound device is used in the line “fliched form the tree forbidden”?
A. onomatopoeia B. Rhyme
C. alliteration D. consonant

11. “evil contraption” in the poem means
A. Evil done by Nigeria elites
B. the unjust and inequitable
C. the poem itself
D. the Nigeria society filled with all kinds of evil

Identify the figure of speech used in each sentence

12. The moon has gone to bed

A. Synecdoche
B. oxymoron
C. Personification
D. comedy

13. More hands are needed for the job.
A. tragedy B. metaphor
C. alliteration D. synecdoche

14. O lord bless this house
A. apostrophe B. assonance
C. simile D. climax

15. The mad dog, James, is at it again.
A. simple B. comedy
C. oxymoron D. metaphor

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS (LITERATURE OF 2006/2007)

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. A 12.C 13. D 14. A 15. D

[/lightweight-accordion] [lightweight-accordion title=”CHEMISTRY”]

UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for Chemistry

NB: Make sure you have taken the test/quiz above. If you have, then go ahead and download the UNN Post UTME Past Questions in PDF or just view it directly on this website.

Download PDF

UNN POST UTME QUESTIONS FOR CHEMISTRY 2005/2006

Which of the following is a mixture?
A. sodium chloride B. sea water C. iron filling D. granulate sugar
two elements, X and Y, have atomic numbers 8 and 13 respectively, the formula for the possible compound found between X and Y is
A. Y₂X₃ B. XY₂ C. X₃Y₂ D.X₂Y₂
3g of a mixture of CaO and CaCo3 was heated to a constant mass. If 0.44g of CO₂ was liberated calculate the percentage of CaO in the mixture.
A 33.3% B.50% C.66.67% D. 25%
An alkanoic acid has a molecular mass of 88. Its molecular formula is
A. C₄H₉COOH B. C₅H₁₁ COOH C. C₃H₅COOH D. C₃H₇COOH
if the rate of diffusion of oxygen is taken as 1cm3^s, what will be the rate of diffusion of methane whose relative molecular mass is 16?
A. 2.0 B.1.8 C.1.4 D. 1.0
An increase in temperature causes an increase in the pressure of a gas in a fixed volume due to an increase in the
A. number of molecules of the gas
B. density of the gas molecules
C. number of collisions between the gas molecules
D. number of collisions between the gas molecules and the walls of the container
In electrolysis, the chemical reaction which take place at the anode is A. dissociation B. Hydrolyses C. Oxidation D. Reduction
In the electrolysis to brine, it is essential to prevent the mixing of the products because
A. sodium and chlorine readily combine
B. chlorine gives a green coloration
C. chlorine readily recombines with sodium hydroxide
D. sodium hydroxide forms a carbonates in the presence of air and chlorine
In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reverse reaction?
A. The two equilibrium constants are identical
B. The product of the two is always grater than one
C. The product of the two is expected to be one
D. the addition of the two is expected to be one
When chlorine water is exposed to sunlight, the gas evolved is
A. CL₂ B.O₂ C.C.HCL D. CO₂
Pbcl₂ does not dissolve in liquid ammonia while AgCl does. This is because
A. Pb is not a transition metal while Ag is
B. Ag is not a transition metal while Pb is
C. AgCl turns grey to exposure to light
D. AgCl dissolves in hot water
When sodium hydroxide pellets are exposed to the atmosphere, that first gas they absorb is
A. CO₂ B. water vapour C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
What is the IUPAC name of the hydrocarbon

2-ethyl-4-melthy pent-2-ene
3.5 dimethyl hex-3-ene
2, 4 dimethy hex-3-ene
3-methyly 2-ethyl hex-2-ene
Which of the following behaves like ethyne?
A. CH₃CHCHCH₃
B. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CHCH₂
C. CH2CH2
D. CH₃CH₃

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR CHEMISTRY 2005/2006

1. A mixture is a material system made up two or more different substances which are mixed together but are not combined chemically. It is the physical combination of top or more substances the identities of which are retained and are mixed in the form of alloys, solutions. Suspensions and colloids. Sodium chloride is compound chemically Produced sea water is a mixture of sand, water and salts, iron fillings is an element existing alone. Granulated sugar is a sample compound. Ans. B

2. Recall that the valency of an element is the combining power of the element. An element X with atomic number 8 is a non-metal with a valency -2 while an element Y, with atomic number 13 is a metal with a valency of +3. When X and Y combine, their valencies are interchanged to form the compound: Y₂X₂ Ans. A

3. CaCO₃→ CaO +Co₂
100g of CaCO₃=44g of CO₂ 1g of CaCO₃= 0.44g of CO₂
Therefore, 1 g of CaCO₃ is in the mixture.
Percentage of CaCO =x 100%
66.67%
Ans. C

4. Recall that alkanoic acids form a homologous series with the general molecular formula of C_nH_2n+1 COOH.
From the general formula, we have that (12xn) + [1x (2n +1)] + 12 + 16 + 1 = 88
12n+2n+1+45 =88
14n+46=88
14n =88-46=42
n=3
we therefore obtain the molecular formula by substituting for n in the general formula, i.e C₃H₇COOH
Ans. D

5. 𝑅_𝑂/𝑅_𝑀 = √(𝐷_𝑀/𝐷₀)
1/𝑅_𝑀= √(16/32)
1/𝑅_𝑀 = √ (32/16)
= 1.41
Ans. D

6. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the gas molecules move randomly in straight lines, colliding with one another and with the walls of the container. These collisions constitute the gas pressure. An increase in temperature leads to an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas particles, an increases in the frequency (or number) of collisions and an increase pressure. Ans. D

7. The anode is the positive electrode which is connected to the positive terminal of the electric source. It is the electrode through which electrons leave the electrolyte loss of electron is oxidation. Ans. C

8. Note that brine is the name give to sodium chloride solution. The industrial process for the electrolysis of brine is referred to as the chloroalkali process. Depending on the method used, several products are prevented from mixing. Chlorine and sodium hydroxide are the products. If mixing of products is allowed, the sodium hydroxide produced attacks liberate carbon (IV) oxide to form carbonate. 2NaOH+ CO₂CO₃ +H₂O Ans. D

9. Equilibrium constant is defined as the ratio of the rate of forward reaction to that of backward reaction. In writing equilibrium constant for forward reactions, the product for forward reactions, the products are placed as the numerator while the reactant are placed as the denominator. In writing reverse or backward equilibrium constant, reactants form the numerator while products form the denominator. Consider the “reaction” below;
X (Reactants) ⥤ y (products) if forward equilibrium constant = k₀ reverse equilibrium constant =
= [𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑠]^𝑦 / [𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑠]^𝑦
kcl = [𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑠]𝑦 / [𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑠]𝑦
This shows that the equilibrium constant of the forward reaction is the inverse (or opposite) of that of the reverse reaction.
That is = 1/𝑘𝑎 → k_c x k_cl = 1
Therefore, the product of the low is expected to be one. Ans. C

10. Note that chlorine water is the name given to chlorine. Under the action of light, chlorine water gives oxygen and hydrochloric acid. Ans. B

11. Ans. A

12. Sodium hydroxide is a white crystalline solid. It is deliquescent and melts at about 320⁰C without decomposing. It readily absorbs carbon (V) to form sodium trioxocarbonate (iv) Ans. A

HOCH HCL + ½ O_2(g)

14. Ans. A

15. Ans. C

UNN POST UTME QUESTIONS FOR CHEMISTRY 2006/07

Indicate the correct option in each of the following questions.

A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in
A. steam B. Dilute hydrochloric acid C. Dilute sodium hydroxide D. Benzene
If 67.5g of oxide of lead was reduced to 61.2 g of metal, calculate the formula of the oxide (Pb = 207, 0 =16)
A. PbO B. 10cm₃ C. Pb₃O₄ D. Pb₂O₃
Calculate the minimum volume of the oxygen that is required for complete combustion of a mixture of 20cm³ of CO and 10cm³ of hydrogen.
A. 5cm³ B. 10cm³ C. 15cm³ D. 20cm³
HNO₃ +H₂0= H₃O + NO₃ in the reaction action above, NO₃ is the
A. Conjugate B. Acid C. Conjugate base D. Base
The pH range of a neutralization product of CH₃COOH and KOH is
A. 1-3 B.7-8 C. 6-7 D. 12-14
How much NaOH is required to make 250cm³ of 0.1mol/dm³ solution?
A. 10g B. 1.0g C. 0.1g D. 4g
2PbO 2PbO +O₂ in the equation above, the oxidizing agent is
A. Pb³⁺ B. Pb²⁺ C. O^2- D. O₂
A current of 0.5A flows for 1930 seconds and deposits 0.325g of metal M. if the charge is +2, the relative molecular mass is A. 65g B. 32g C. 24g D. 40g
Emission of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) into the atmosphere causes
A. global warming Acid Rain B. depletion of ozone layer C. greenhouse effect
The diagram above shows the reaction path of an exothermic reaction. The heat of reaction is represented by
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
Which of the following samples will react fastest with dilute HCL?
A. 10g of lumps of CaCO₃ at 25₀C B. 10g of powdered CaCO₃ at 25⁰C
C. 10g of lumps of aCaCO³at 50⁰C D. 10g of powered CaCO₃ at 50⁰C
The colour exhibited by copper in a flame test is
A. green B. lilac C. Blue-green D. Crimson
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. chlorine bleaches by oxidation while sulphur (iv) oxide bleaches by reduction
B. Chlorine bleaches by reduction while sulphur (iv) oxide bleaches by Oxidation
C. both of them bleach by oxidation D. both of the bleach by reduction
1-chlorobenzoic acid
3-chlorobezoic acid
M-chlorobenzoic acid
P-chlorobenzoic acid
2-methlbenzoic acid is an isomer of
A. pent-1-ene B. 2-methylpent-2-ene
C. Hex-3-ene D.2methylprop-1-ene

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR CHEMISTRY

1. Both iron and sulphur attack steam to form oxides.
Iron reacts very slowly with dil. HCL to liberate hydrogen while sulphur dissolves in dil. HCL to form sulphide.
Both have no reaction with benzene sulphur reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium sulphide but iron has no reaction with sodium hydrozide.
Hence, are separated by dissolving the mixture in dil. NaOH . Ans. C

2. mass of oxide of lead = 67.5g mass of metal = 6d1.2g
Mass of oxygen = 67.5-61.2 =6.3g
Element                   Pb                          O
Relative mass         61.2g                   6.3g
Mole ratio   = 𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 / 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 61.2/207 = 0.3 (63/16) = 0.4
[𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 / 𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 (𝑖.𝑒.0.3)] 1 = 1.33 ≈1

Therefore, the formula of the oxide is PBO Ans. A

3. 2CO + 02 2CO₂

2_:1 2

20cm³ : 10cm³ 20cm³

10cm³ of O₂ is needed

2H₂ + 02 2H₂O

2 : 1 : 2

10cm³ : 5cm³ : 10cm³

5cm³ of O2 is needed

Total O₂ needed = 10cm³ + 5cm³= 15cm³

Ans. C

4. Considering the reverse reaction, we notice that NO₃ can gain a proton from H₃O⁺. hence, it is the conjugate base Ans. C

5. Note that the two neutralization products of CH₃COOH and KOH are CH₃COOK and H₂O i.e. salt and water
Ch₃COOH +KOH CH₃COOK +H₂O
CH₃COOK is a salt of weak acid and strong base.
The salt will basic when dissolved in water because the strengths of acid and base are not equal.
Therefore CH₃COOK when dissolved in water will have all the properties of KOH (a base) Ans. D

6. g/dm³ = mol/dm³ x molar mass g/dm³ = mass conc. = 0.1 mol/dm³.
This implied that, 4g of NaOH is needed for 1000cm³ xg of NaOH is needed for 250cm³
x = 4g x 250cm³=1g = 1000cm³ Ans. B

7. Considering redox in terms of oxygen, we note that a species is said to have been reduced if it lose oxygen from left to right of an equation.
This reduced species is also the oxidizing agent.
In another way, the oxidizing agent is usually defined as the oxygen donor while the oxygen acceptor is the reducing agent.
So the oxidized species is the one that gains oxygen from left to right of an equation.
In the given equation, the reduced species is Pb⁴⁺(i.e. from Pb²⁺):
Hence, it is the oxidizing agent Ans. A

8. i = 0.5A, t = 1930s, m = 0.32g, valency =+2
1mole = 1 farad x valency
Where 1 farad = 96500C
1 mole of metal = 96500 x 2 = 193. 000C
But 0.325g of metal = it
=0.5 x 1930 = 965C
i.e. 0. 325g of metal = 96C
X = 193.000C
(0.325 x 193,000) / 965
X = 65g
Ans. A

9. O₃ + CL CIO₂ + O²

(from CFC) Ans. C

10. Heat of reaction is the amount of heat evolved or absorbed when a chemical reaction occurs between molar quantities of the substances as represented in the equation of reaction under standard conditions Ans. D

11. At high temperatures, rate of reaction is high and powdered reactants provide greater surface are for reactions. Ans. D

12. All copper (II) salts impart a characteristic bluish-green colour to a non-luminous flame. Ans. C

13. Ans. A

14. Ans. A

15. Ans. A

15. D

[/lightweight-accordion] [lightweight-accordion title=”PHYSICS”]

UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for Physics

NB: Make sure you have taken the test/quiz above. If you have, then go ahead and download the UNN Post UTME Past Questions in PDF or just view it directly on this website.

Download PDF

UNN POST UTME QUESTIONS FOR PHYSICS 2005/2006

Which of the following represents the correct precision if the length of a piece of wire is measured with a meter rule?
A. 35mm B.35.0mm
C. 35.00mm D.35.1mm
To keep a vehicle moving at a constant speed V requires power P, from the engine. The force provided by the engine is
A. P/V B.V/2 C. PV D.P/V²
Which of the following statements gives the TRUE difference between evaporation and boiling?
i. Evaporation occurs at all temperatures while boiling occurs at a fixed temperature for a given pressure.
ii. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon while boiling is an interior phenomenon
iii. Evaporation is affected by surface area while boiling is not

A. i and ii only
B. i and iii only
C. ii and iii only
D. i, ii and iii only
Equal masses of copper and rubber are raised to the same temperature. After sometimes, the copper was observed to be at a lower temperature because.
A. the specific heat capacity of copper is lower than that of rubber
B. copper expands more than rubber
C. the specific heat capacity of rubber is lower than that than of copper
D. rubber expands more than copper
Which of the following statements is correct about a long-sighted boy who does not put on glasses?
A. He cannot see distant objects clearly
B. Rays of light form a close object are focused in front of the retina
C. His eyeball is too long
D. Parallel rays of light are focused behind the retina
A 12V battery bas an internal resistance of 0.5 if a cable of 1.0 resistance is connected across the terminals of the battery the current drawn form the battery is
A.16.0A B. 8.0A C.0.8A D.0.4A
If two parallel wires carry currents flowing in the same direction, the conductors’ will
A. attract each other
B. repel each other
C. both move in the same direction
D. have no effect on each other
From the generating station to each substation, power is transmitted at a very high voltage so as to reduce
A. eddy current loss
B. hysteresis loss
C. heating in the coils
D. magnetic flux leakage
Two tuning forks of frequencies 256Hz and 260Hz are sounded close to each other. What is the frequency of the beats produced?
A. 516Hz B. 258Hz
C.4Hz D. 300Hz
The fundamental frequency of vibration of a sonometer wire way be halved by
A. doubling the length of the wire
B. doubling the mass of the wire
C. reducing the tension by half
D. reducing the absolute temperature by half
A transformer has a primary coil with 500 turns and a secondary coil with 2500 turns. When the voltage input to the primary is 120V, the output is
A. 6000V B. 600V C.240V D.60V
The principle of operation of an induction coil is based on
A. Ohm’s law B. Ampere’s law
C. Faraday’s law D. Coulomb’s law
4g of radioactive material of half-life 10days is spilled on a laboratory floor. How long would it take to disintegrate 3.5g of the material?
A. 11/4days B. 8 ¾ days C. 30 days D. 80 days
Which of the following statements correctly describe(s) cathode rays?
i. They consist of tiny particles carrying negative electric charges
ii. They are deflected in a magnetic field by not in neutrons and are deflected in an electric field.
iii. They consist of fast-moving neutrons and are deflected in an electric field

A. i only B. iii only C. i and ii only D. ii and iii only
Which of the following is most strongly deflected by a magnetic field?
A. y-rays B. X–rays C. β – particles

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR PHYSICS 2005/06

1. The least count of a measuring device is the smallest measurement which the measuring device can be used to measure. It is otherwise referred to as reading accuracy.
For meter rule, the reading accuracy/precision =0.1cm = 1.0mm therefore, 35.0mm represents the correct precision of the measured length.
Ans. B

2. Speed = v, power = P, distance = S, force = F, time = t,
work done = W.P.
= W/t = (FXS)/t P
= F S/t
= F x v P = Fv
and F = P/v
Ans. A

3. Notice that statement (ii looks true but it’s not. While evaporation simply takes place at the surface of the liquid, boiling takes place in all parts of the liquid
Ans. B

4. Specific heat capacity is defined as the mount of heat that is necessary to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance through 1⁰C.
A body with low specific heat capacity can get heated quickly and can equally lose that heat quickly
Ans. A

5. A long-sighted person can see objects at a distance but cannot see close objects clearly. Long-sightedness is caused by the eyeball being too short or the eye lens not being sufficiently convergent so that rays form an object are brought to focus behind the retina. Ans. D

6. E =I (R+r)
12 = 1 (0.5 +1.0) =1.51
12 = 1.51,
1 =12/1.5 = 8A
Ans. B

7. Ampere’s law states that parallel wires attract each other when the currents in them flow in the same direction, but repel each other when the currents flow in opposite directions
Ans. C

8. From the generating station to each substation, power is transmitted t a very high voltage so as to reduce heating in the coils.
Ans. C

9. Frequency of beats = 256Hx +260Hz = 516Hz
Ans. A

10. For a sonometer, the relationship between f and I is an inversely proportional relationship; that is, it the length is double the frequency is halved, and if the octave (double frequency) is required the length is halved
Ans. A

11. P_T/S_T = P_v/S_v
500/2500 = 120/x
X = (120 x2500)/500
=600V
Ans. B

12. The principle of operation of an induction coil is based on faraday’s law
Ans. C

13. Amount remaining = 4 3.5 = 0.5g
After 10days, ½ x4g = 2g remains
After 20days, ½ x 2g = 1gremains
After 30days, ½ x 1g = 0.5g remains
Ans. C

14. Ans. C

15. Of all the options, -particles is most strongly deflected by a magnetic field because it is very light and negatively charged.
Ans. C

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS PHYSICS (2005/2006)
1. A 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.D 6.B 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.A 11.B 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.C

UNN POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS FOR PHYSICS 2006/2007

Indicate the correct option in each of the following questions

Which of the following is a set of vectors?
A. Force, mass and momentum
B. Acceleration, velocity and momentum
C. Mass, weight and density
D. Mass, volume and density
A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 200cm with an applied force, F. It the stone leaves with a velocity of 40m/s, the value of F is
A. 4.0 x 10²N/M² B. 2.0 x 10³N C. 4.0 x 10³N D. 4.0 x 10⁴N
A parachute attains a terminal velocity when
A. It density is equal to the density of air
B. The viscous force of air and up thrust completely counteracts its weight
C. It expands as a result of reduced external pressure.
D. The viscous force of the air is equal to the sum of the weight and up thrust.
An electrical heater is used to melt a block of ice, mass 1.5g. If the heater is powered by a 12v battery, and a current of 20A flows through the coil, calculate the time taken to melt the block of ice at 0⁰C. (Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336x 10³ J/kg)
A. 76.0min B. 35.0min
C. 21.0min D. 2.0min
200g of water at 90⁰Cis mixed with same quantity of water at 30⁰C. Want is the final temperature?
A. 50⁰C C. 60⁰
B. 70⁰C D. 80⁰C
The equation P^x V^y T^z = constant is Charles law when
A. x =1, y=1, z=1, B. x=0, y=1, z=1
C. x= 1, y=0, z = -1 D. x=0, y=1, z=1
For a short-sighted person, light rays from a point on a very distant object is focused
A. in front of the retina
B. behind the retina
C. behind the retina by a diverging lens
D. in front of the retina a distance 2F from the lens.
Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due to the
A. different hidden colours of the glass
B. different speeds of various colours in glass
C. defect in the glass
D. high density in glass
To produce an enlarged and erect image with a concave mirror, the object must be poisoned
A. between the principal focus and the centre of curvature at the principal focus
B. between the principal focus and the pole
C. Beyond the centre of curvature
To convert an ac dynamo to dc dynamo, the
A. number of turns of the coil is increased
B. slip rings are replaced with a split-ring commutator
C. number of turns of the coil is reduced
D. split-rind commutator is replaced with slip rings.
In an Ac circuit that contains only a capacitor, the voltage
A. lags behind the current by 90⁰
B. leads the current by 90⁰
C. lags behinds the current by 180⁰
D. leads the current by 180⁰
The purpose of dielectric material in a parallel plate capacitor is to
A. increases the capacitance
B. decrease its capacitance
C. insulate the plates from each other
D. increase the magnetic field between plates
A substance has a half-life of 3min. after 6mins, the count rate was observed to be 600. What was its count rate at zero time?
A. 200 B. 1200
C. 1600 D. 2400
If light with photon energy 2eV is incident on the surface of a metal with work function 3eV, then
A. no electron will be emitted
B. the few electrons emitted will have maximum kinetic energy of 1eV
C. The few electrons emitted will have a maximum kinetic energy of 3eV
In a nuclear fusion experiment, the loss of mass amount to the amount of energy obtained from the fusion (speed of light = 3.0 x 10⁸m/s) is
A. 3.0 x10+J B. 3.0X 10⁴J
C. 9.0X10^-4 D. 9.0x 10¹⁰J

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR PHYSICS 2006/2007

1. Vector quantities are quantities that have both magnitude and direction e.g. acceleration velocity, momentum, etc.
Ans. B

2. m= 500g = 0.5kg,
s =20 = 0.2m,
v= 40m/s
F = ma to obtain the value of, “a”,
we note that V² = 2as 40² = 2 x a x 0.2 = 0.4aa a= 40²/0.4 = 4000m/s² F= 0.5 x 4000 F = 2000 = 2 X 10³N
Ans. B.

3. A parachute attains a terminal velocity when t eh viscous force of the air and the up thrust completely counteract its weight
Ans. B

4. M = 1.5kg, V = 12V, 1 = 20A, t = c 336 x 10³J/Kg. Mc = V1tt= mc/IV = (1.5 x 336 x 10³) / (20 x12) t = 2100secs = (2100/60) mins, T= 35mins. Ans. B

5. Let the final temperature = T, 0, 90, 0₂ = 30⁰
M₁ (0₂T) = m₂c (T -0²)
But m₁ =m₂ = 200g
0₁ –T=T-0₂
T +T =0₁ +0₂
2T = 0₁+ 0₂
T = (0₁+ 0₂)/2
T = (90 +30)/2 = 120/2 =60
T = 60⁰C.
Ans. B

6. The equation P^x V^y T^{z =}constant is Charles law when x = O, Y, = 1, z =1

7. For a short-sighted person, light rays from a Point to a very distant object is focused in front of the retina
Ans. A

8. Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due to the different speeds that various colored rays move in glass. Each color in a ray of white light is the refracted in a slightly different direction on entering a glass prism
Ans. B

9. To produce an enlarged and erect-image with a concave mirror, the object must be positioned between the principal focus and the pole
Ans. B

10. To convert an a.c dynamo to d.c dynamo, the-slip rings are replaced with a split –ring commutator
Ans. B

11. The phase relationship of current and voltage for pure inductive and purely capacitive circuits are opposite.
A phrase that may help to remember the relationship is;
ELI the ICE man with E presenting voltage (for emf) and I representing current.
ELI indicates that with an inductance (L) the voltage leads the current by 90⁰.
Similarly ICE tells you that with a capacitance (C) the current leads the voltage by 90⁰. Ans. A

12 The purpose of dielectric material in parallel plate capacitors is to increase the capacitance of the capacitor. This means that the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric material
Ans. A

13. Half-life of substance = 3mins, at 6mins, count rate = 600 at 3mins, count rate = 2 x 600 = 1200 at 0mins, count rate 1200 x 2 2400
Ans. D

14. If light with photon energy 2eV is incident on the surface of a metal with work function 3eV, no electron will be emitted. The law of photoelectric emission states that for electron to be emitted from the surface of a metal, the photon energy has to be equal to or greater than the work function.
Ans. A

15. Mass, m = 1.0x 10-6kg
speed of light, c = 3.0 x 10⁸m/s
Energy obtained, E = mc² E = 1.0×10^-6x (3.0x 10⁸)² =9.0 x 10¹⁰J
Ans. D

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS (PHYSICS 2006/2007)

1. A 2. B 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.B 9. C 10.B 11. A 12. A. 13. D 14. A 15. D

[/lightweight-accordion] [lightweight-accordion title=”BIOLOGY”]

UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for Biology

NB: Make sure you have taken the test/quiz above. If you have, then go ahead and download the UNN Post UTME Past Questions in PDF or just view it directly on this website.

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UNN Post UTME Past Questions for BIOLOGY 2005/2006

The difference between the cell wall of a plant cell and animal cell is that
A. Plant cell wall contains silica
B. Animal cell contains stomata in its membrane
C. Plant cell is made up of membranes only
D. Plant cell wall contains cellulose
In mammals, digestion of starch starts in the
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Mouth
D. Liver
In the process of pollination of a flowering plant, the pollen grain must touch this structure to start off
A. Petals
B. Calyx
C. Ovary
D. Stigma
All birds have
A. Two-chambered heart
B. Three-chambered heart
C. Four- chambered heart
D. One- chambered heart
The list of important types of supporting tissues in plant does not include
A. Collenchymas
B. Cambium
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Being filled with marrow
Bones of birds are modified for fight by
A. Being long
B. Being cartilaginous
C. Containing air spaces
D. Being filled with marrow
The waste product of plant like glycosides, tannins alkaloids and plant oils may be stored in the
A. Xylem
B. Cell vacuoles and cell wall of leaves
C. Roots, stem tissues and bark
D. Pith, stomata and root hairs
The part of the alimentary system of bird where grinding of maize occurs is
A. Crop
B. Gizzard
C. Cloak
D. Rectum
To study the structure of mammalian kidney in a secondary school you need
A. To get fresh kidney of a sheep or a pig
B. To get a fresh kidney of a man
C. To get a fresh kidney of a chick
D. To get a fresh kidney of a toad
The following are some examples of food chain in the savanna terrestrial ecosystem except
A. Grass → Zebra → Lion
B. Diatoms → Crayfish → Bony fish
C. Seeds → Weaverbird → Vulture
Reptiles and birds lay eggs on dry land. These are special eggs described as
A. Ammonic
B. Amniotic
C. Embryonic
D. Chorionic
A pollen grain produces two male gametes; one is used to form the zygote while the other forms the endosperm by fusing with
A. Other pollens
B. Embryo sac
C. Polar nuclei
D. Haploid spore
The main vector of malaria parasites is
A. Culex mosquito
B. Chryscops
C. Anopheles mosquito
D. Aedes mosquito
When a plant bearing ripe fruits is swayed by the wind and in the process the seeds are scattered the phenomenon is called
A. wind dispersal
B. censer mechanism
C. winged fruits
D. explosive mechanism
One of these is not amendment of Mendelian genetics
A. Multiple alleles
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Sex-linked character
D. Single factor inheritance

UNN Post UTME Answers for BIOLOGY 2005/06

1. The difference between the cell wall of a plant cell and animal cell is that plant cell wall contains cellulose. A typical difference between plant cell and animal cell is the presence of cell wall. While the plant cell contains a cellulose cell wall the animal cell has no cell wall. Ans. D

2. In mammals digestion of starch starts in the mouth. Saliva in the mouth contains an enzyme – Ptyalin which digests starch converting it into complex sugars. Ans. C

3. In the process of pollination of a flowering plant, the pollen grain must touch the stigmas to start off. The stigma is the structure that receives the pollen grain and it is modified structurally in various ways to carry out that function. Ans. D

4. All birds have four-chambered hearts. Birds carry out double circulation and have their heart divided into four chambers. Two upper thin-walled auricles and two lower thick-walled ventricles. Ans. C

5. The list of important types of supporting tissues in plant does not include cambium. The important supporting tissues in plants are: the turgid parenchyma, scleranchyma, collenchymas and xylem. Ans. B

6. Bones of birds are modified for flight by containing air spaces. Its skeleton is rigid and the bones have air sacs. Only the vertebrae in the neck are flexible. These features are adaptations for flight. Ans. C

7. The waste product of plants like glycosides, tannins, alkaloids and plant oils may be stored in the cell vacuoles and cell walls off leaves. Ans. B

8. The part of the alimentary system of bird where grinding of maize occurs is the gizzard. The gizzard is a strong muscular bag and the action of its muscles and the gastric juice churn and break food into small pieces. Ans. B

9. To study the structure of mammalian kidney in a secondary school you need to get fresh kidney of a sheep or goat. Ans. A

10. Since the savanna is a highly productive habitat and the herbivore are able to feed on all available plant food in the grassland; the food chains found include all others except “B”.
Ans. B

11. Amniotic egg is the type of egg produced by reptiles, bires, and prottherian (egg-laying) mammals, in which the embryo develops inside an amnion. The shell of the egg is either calcium-based or leathery. Ans. B

12. Fertilization is a unique process in flowering plant. A pollen grain produces two male gametes. In the embryo sac, One male gamete fertilizers the egg to form a zygote, and the other male gamete fuses with another cell (polar nuclei) to form the food storing tissue (endosperm) in the seed. This process is called double fertilization. Ans. C

13. The main vector of malaria parasite is female anopheles mosquitoes. The bites of infected female anopheles mosquito transmit the parasite. Thus is the major vector of malaria parasite. Ans. C

14. Note that dispersal of seeds and fruits is the scattering of seeds and fruits away from the parent plant to avoid overcrowding, thereby reducing competition for food (nutrients), space, water, and air. Agents of dispersal and wind, water, animals and explosive mechanism. The main methods of wind dispesal use ‘censer’ mechanism, hairs and plumes, winged and light fruits/seed. In ‘censer’ mechanism, the seeds are scattered when the plant bearing the ripe fruits sways in the wind. A good example is the capsule of the opium poppy. Ans. B

15. Though the Mendelian genetics forms the basis for understanding inheritance patterns, several findings do not comply with his inheritance patterns. These findings include: multiple alleles, incomplete dominance, sex-linked characters, co-dominance, linkage, sex determination, polygenic inheritance and mutation. Ans. D

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS

1. D 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.C 6.C

7.B 8.B 9.A 10.B 11.B 12.C 13,C 14,B 15.D

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for BIOLOGY 2006/07

The mitochondrion consists of
A. chemicals that breaks up complex compounds in the cells into sampler compounds.
B. Stores ribonucleic acid
C. Digestive enzymes and hormones
D. Protein phosphorus and fats
In amoeba, the ectoplasm is bounded by a membrane known as the
A. Plasmasol B. Plasmagel
C. Plasmalemma D. Protoplasm
Centipedes are
A. Equally dangerous millipedes
B. less dangerous than millipedes
C. more dangerous than all
D. not dangerous at all
Odontophore is a skeletal structure in the phylum of
A. pisces B. echinoderms
C. mollusca D. amphibian
Wattle is a name of a structure found
A. lizard                B. chameleon
C. Cock                 D. Dogfish
One of these features is the caudal vertebrae in mammal
A. They posses neural canal
B. Their transverse process are poorly developed
C. Their neural spines are gradually lost
D. There are not many articular surfaces
The inner ear has two types of coiled structure called cochlea which
A. receives sound impulses
B. has sensor cell which carry impulses to the spinal cord
C. connects to the eusta chain tube
D. possess cells sensitive to balance
The viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts, the outer part and the inner part. The outer part is protein and the inner part is
A. nucleus B. vacuole
C. particle D. DNA and RNA
The thallus of a liches consist of
A. a virus and a fungus
B. algae cells and fungal hyphae
C. bacterial and fungal cells
D. soredium and basisiaba
The palisade parenchyma is found in the
A. stem B. leaf
C. flower D. root
The tomato fruit is a very example of
A. an aggregate fruit B. a drupe
C. a berry D. a multiple fruit
Crenations occur in the red blood cell when
A. it is placed in isotonic solution
B. it is placed in hypertonic solution
C. osmosis is allowed to occur
D. transpiration occur
The capillaries act as filters between
A. the veins
B. the arteries
C. venules
D. the arteries and the veins
The primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are
A. openings in the cuticles
B. stomata
C. lenticels
D. branches
The outer membrane covering the brain is known as
A. a brain ventricle
B. a choroid
C. pia mater
D. dura mater

UNN Post UTME Answers for BIOLOGY 2006/07

1. The mitochondrion consist of chemicals that break up complex compounds in the cells into simple compounds. The mitochondrion which is the power house of the cell is the site of chemical energy conversion for cell activities such as cellular respiration. Ans. A

2. In amoeba the ectoplasm is bounded by a thin membrane known as the plasmalemma. The ectoplasm (plasmage) which is a part of cytoplasm is bounded by the above membrane. While plasmasol is the name of the other part of the cytoplasm (or endoplasm) protoplasm is that living part of a cell consisting of the cytoblasm and the nucleus. Ans. C

3. Centipedes are more dangerous. A centipede has poisonous claws found on its segments which it uses to kill prey but a millipede is a harmless which feeds on dead decaying mater. Ans. C

4. Odontosphore is a skeletal structure in the phylum of mollusca. It is a structure at the base of the mouth of most mollusks over which the radula is drawn back and forth in breaking up food. Ans. C

5. Wattle is a name of a structure found in cock. Wattle is that piece of red skin that hangs down from throat of bird. Ans. C

6. Moving down the vertebral column of a mammal towards the posterior end, transverse processes, articular surfaces, and neural spines all become reduced in size and gradually disappear. Ans. A

7. The inner ear has two types of coiled structure called cochlea which receives sound impulses. The cochlea which is a spirally coiled tube that looks like a snail’s shell contains part of the auditory nerve and on receiving sound impulses sends them to the brain. Ans. A

8. The viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts: the outer part and the inner part. the outer part is protein and the inner part is DNA and RNA. The virus is the link between living and non-living organism under different conditions. Ans. D

9. The lichen is a distinct type of organism in which the thallus (body) is composed of both fungal hyphae (which is a thread-like fungal cells) and algal cells in symbiotic association. The fungal partner is usually an ascomycete and is dominant to the alga which is a green or blue-green alga. Ans.

10. The palisade parenchyma is found in the leaf. Parenchyma cells may be modified and more specialized in certain parts of the plant. An example of a tissue that can be regarded as a modified parenchyma is the mesophyll. The mesophyll is the packing tissue found between the two epidermal layers of leaves. And consist of parenchyma modified to carry out photosynthesis. In dicots there are two distinct layers of mesophyll: palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll. Ans. B

11. The tomato fruit is a very good example of berry. A berry is a type of fleshy fruit which is a true and simple fruit. The epicarp forms a thin membranous skin and the mesocarp and endocarp forms a fleshy edible mass within which lie one or more seed(s). Ans. C

12. Crenation is the contraction of a cell after exposure to a hypertonic solution due to loss of water through osmosis. Crenation occurs because in a hypertonic environment (that is, the cell has a lower concentration of solutes and, therefore, higher water potential than the surrounding extracellular fluid), osmosis (diffusion of water) causes a net movement of water out of the cell, causing the cytoplasm to decrease in its volume. As a result, the cell shrinks and forms abnormal notchings around its edges. Ans. B

13. The capillaries act as filters between the arteries and veins. The capillaries are microscopic blood vessels that form a network linking the arteriole and venules. Ans. D

14. The primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are lenticels. Lenticels are primary openings for gaseous exchange on old step and root.

15. The outer membrane covering the brain is known as Dura mater. The meninges which envelops the brain and the spinal cord has its outermost membrane Dura mater. Ans. D

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS {BIOLOGY 2006/07}

1.A 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.B 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.C 15.D

15. D

[/lightweight-accordion] [lightweight-accordion title=”CRS”]

UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for CRS

NB: Make sure you have taken the test/quiz above. If you have, then go ahead and download the UNN Post UTME Past Questions in PDF or just view it directly on this website.

Download PDF

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for CRS 2005/06

“If I tell you, you will not believe; and if ask you, you will not answer…..” Jesus statement above was in response to a request by:
A. King Herod
B. The chief priests
C. Pontius Pilate
D. The oharisees and Sadducees
“And they arrested them and put them in custody until tomorrow, for it was already evening” in this statement above, the imprisoned persons were
A. Paul and John Mark
B. Peter and Stephen
C. Peter and john
D. Paul and Barnabas
“Teacher, do you not care if we perish” where was Jesus Christ when this question was asked?
A. On the sea, walking
B. In the wilderness
C. On the mount of olive
D. In the stern, asleep
According to John, the word “Rabbi” in Hebrew means
A. Disciple B. priest
C. master D. teacher
Where were the disciples of Jesus when he had a conversation with the Samaritan woman?
A. They had gone to the city to preach the gospel.
B. They had gone to the city to buy food
C. They had gone to mountain to pray
D. They had gone to wait for him
The parable of the sower can be categorized under parables about
A. Wealth B. nature
C. the kingdom D. the love of God
Jesus was at the wedding in Canaan of Galilee because
A. he wanted to demonstrate his power
B. he was invited to the ceremony
C. the groom was his relation
D. his disciples were there
The first person that revealed to Eli the evil of that would come to his home was
A. Joel B. a man of God
C. a prophet from Shiloh D. Samuel
In the story of transfiguration, Moses and Elijah represented the
A. Glory of God B. old testament saints
C. law and the prophets D. end of the age
“I will turn aside and see this great sight….” In the statement above, the great sight referred to was the
A. burning bush that was not burnt
B. thick smoke in Mount Sinai
C. mountain that was shaking
D. thunder and lightning on Mount Sinai
What did Asa do that was right in the eye of the LORD?
A. He removed all the idols of his father
B. He killed all the priests of Baal
C. His reign was peaceful
D. he killed all the Baal worship always
The royal law in the scripture according to James is
A. Loving one’s neighbor as oneself
B. Praying for one’s enemies
C. Leaving vengeance to God
D. Submitting to authority always
An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the
A. Building of the palace
B. Building of the temple
C. Felling of timber
D. Forced labour
In Romans, believers are taught to obey those in authority because rules are representatives of
A. The prophet B. God
C. the kingdom D. the people
God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because
A. he rested on that day from all his work
B. Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day
C. it was a Sabbath day
D. human beings were created on that day

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR CRS 2005/06 [WITH BIBLE REFERENCES]

Jesus statement above was in response to a request by the chief priest and scribes. Luke 22.66-67 Ans. B
The imprisoned persons were Peter and John. Acts 4:3. Ans. C
Jesus was in the stern asleep Mark 4: 38 Ans. D
The ward “rabbi” in Hebrew means teacher. John 20:16. Ans. D
The disciples of Jesus had gone to city to buy food. John 4:8 Ans. B
The parable of the sower can be categorized under parables about the kingdom. Ans. C
Jesus was at the wedding in Canaan of Galilee because he was invited to the ceremony
The first person that revealed to Eli the evil of that would come to his home was a man of God
In the story of transfiguration, Moses and Elijah represented the law and the prophets. Ans. C
In the great sight referred to was the burning bush that was to burnt. Ex. 3:2-3
What Asa did that was right in the eye of the LORD was that he removed all the idols of his father. 1 King 15:11-13 Ans. A
The royal law in the scripture according to James is loving one’s neighbor as oneself. James 2:8 Ans. A
An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the forced labour. 1 Kings 12:4. Ans. D
In Romans, believers are taught to obey those in authority because rulers are representatives of God. Ans. C
God blessed the seventh day and marked it holy because he rested on that day from all Hid work. Gen. 2:3. Ans. A

UNN Post UTME Answers for CRS (CRS 2005/2006)

1. B 2.C 3.D 4.D 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.A

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for CRS 2006/07

When Simon peter saw the great shoal of fish they caught, he exclaimed with personal self judgment because he was:
A sinful man B. astonished
C. amazed D. amenable
After the great council in Jerusalem the apostles and the elders sent some members of the council to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas the people sent were:
A. Peter and James
B. Barnabas and Silas
C. Judas and Silas
D. Silas and Mark
Those who do not believe in Jesus Christ are condemned already because they:
A. Are stubborn B. have not believed
C. Worship idols D. have already perished
God loves his son Jesus because he
A. Is obedient to his father
B. Is the good shepherd
C. Laid down his life for all
D. Is the word that became flesh
Who are the children of God? Those who
A. Keep his command
B. Have faith in the son
C. Hear the word and keep it
D. Love one another
Jesus pronounced woe on Chorazin and Bethsaida because they were:
A. Enemies of truth B. not obedient to the law
C. Not repentant to their sins D. against the word of God
The trial of Jesus brought two enemies together to become friends. Who were these enemies?
A. Pilate and Jesus
B. Herod and Pilate
C. The Jews and the Romans
D. The chief priest and the Pharisees.
Why did King Josiah say the workers who were repairing the house should not be asked to give and account of their spending? They
A. Were not accountable of different trade
B. Did not know who to protect their interest
C. Were very honest and hardworking
D. Had the fear of god and have respect for the king
Moses the servant of the Lord did not see the land of
A. Negev          B. Gilead
C. Moab             D. Zoar
The place where God appeared to Solomon in a dream by night and told him to ask for anything was called
A. Gibeon B. Gezer
C. Gilgal D. Siloh
Why did God command different bands to attack and destroy Judah? God did so because
A. Of the in innocent blood Manasseh had shed
B. God wanted to wipe Judah off his sight
C. Manasseh committed great sin before God
D. Manasseh defiled Jerusalem with innocent blood.
The sin committed by the Israelites that made God sent prophet Ezekiel was:
A. Idolatry C. faithfulness
B. stubbornness D. rebellion
How did king Josiah pay the workmen who had oversight of the house of the lord during the repair of the house? He paid for it through:
A. The normal temple collection from the people
B. Tithes and taxes levied on the people
C. Special donations and temple collections
D. Pledge, tithes and temple collections
Why was Jonah displeased exceedingly and angry while he was in Nineveh? He was angry because God:
A. repented of the evil and forgave Nineveh
B. Wanted to destroy the people of Nineveh
C. Wanted Jonah to preach to the people of Nineveh
D. Change his mind and did not want to do what he intended
What was to be the reward of Israel according to Isaiah if they were willing and obedient to God? They would:
A. Inherit the entire land
B. Be the people of God and God will be their father
C. Prosper and devour their enemies
D. Eat the good of the land

UNN Post UTME Answers for CRS 2006/07

When Simon Peter saw the great shoal of fish they caught, he exclaimed with personal self-judgment because he was astonished. LK 5:8-9. Ans. B
The people sent were Judas and Silas. Acts 15: 22-23. Ans. C
Those who do not believe in Jesus Christ are condemned already because they have not believed. Jn. 3:18. Ans. B
God loves his son Jesus because he laid down his life for all. Jn. 10:17. Ans. C
Those who have faith in the son are children of God Gal. 3:26. Ans. B
Jesus pronounced woe on Chorazin and Bethsaida because they were not repentant of their sins. Matt. 11:21. Ans. C
The enemies were Herod and Pilate. LK. 23.12. Ans. B
King Josiah said that the workers who were repairing the house should not be asked to give an account of their spending because they were very honest and hardworking. 2 kings 22:7. Ans. C
In order not to be dogmatic about the answer to this question, we advise you to read Deut. 34:1-6 and make your choice “and Moses went up form the plains of Moab top Of Pisgah which is opposite Jericho. And the lord showed him all thee land Gilead as far Dan and Naphtali, the land of Ephraim and Manasseh, all the land of Judah as far as the western sea, the Negev, and the plain that is the valley of Jericho the city of palm trees, and far as Zoar. And the LORD said to him … “I shall not go over there” Deut 34: 1-4
The place where god appeared to Solomon in a dream by night and told him to ask for anything was called Gibeon. I king. 3:5. Ans. A
God commanded different bands to attach and destroy Judah because Manasseh committed great sin before God 2 kings 24:2-4. Ans. C
The sin committed by the Israelites that made God sent prophet Ezekiel was rebellion Ezek. 2:3. Ans. D
King Josiah paid the workmen who had oversight of the house of the lord during the repair of the house through the normal temple collection from the people. 2 kings 22: 4-5. Ans. A
Jonah was displeased exceedingly and angry while he w as in Nineveh because God repented of the evil and forgave Nineveh. Jonah 3:10. Ans. A
If they were willing and obedient to God, they would eat the good of the land Isaiah 1:9. Ans. D

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS (CRS 2006/07)

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.B

8.C 9. 10.A 11.C 12.D 13A 14.A 15.D

15. D

[/lightweight-accordion] [lightweight-accordion title=”GOVERNMENT”]

UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for Government

NB: Make sure you have taken the test/quiz above. If you have, then go ahead and download the UNN Post UTME Past Questions in PDF or just view it directly on this website.

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UNN Post UTME Past Questions for Government 2005/06

In the British parliamentary system of government, the monarch can be referred to as the
A. Queen in parliament
B. Queen and parliament
C. Queen’s parliament
D. Queen’s assembly
In Nigeria representation of state in upper house is based on
A. Population
B. Ethnicity
C. Equity
D. Equality
Conditions for forming a federation do not include one of these
A. Small population
B. Diverse ethnic group
C. Geographical nearness
D. Fear of domination
A written constitution must contain a
A.        Dialogue
B.        Discourse
C.        Preamble
D.        Summary
Voting of election in Nigeria is limited to ages
A.        21 and above
B.        20 and above
C.        19 and above
D.        18 and above
Public opinion can function better under
A.        Democratic government
B.        Dictatorial regime
C.        Despotic regime
D.        Military regime
In pre-colonial Nigeria, the northern emir did not use one of these as his head official
A.        The talakwa
B.        The waziri
C.        The galadima
D.        The madawaki
The main motive of the imperialist penetration was to
A.        Educate
B.        Christianize
C.        Trade
D.        Socialize
The 1963 constitution in Nigeria is known as the
A.        Presidential constitution
B.        Independence constitution
C.        Republican constitution
D.        Federal constitution
The national security commission chaired by the
A.        Chief justice of the federation
B.        President of the federal republic of Nigeria
C.        Inspector-General of police
D.        President of the senate
Matters of which the federal government alone can be legislate are called
A. Exclusive list C. residual list
B. Concurrent D. inclusive list
Regulations made by a local government called
A. Laws C. bye-laws
B. Bills D. issuances
One most important achievement of the military is
A.        Creation of states
B.        Elimination of corruption
C.        Preserving Nigerian unity
D.        Decongesting the ports
One of these is not necessary for a dynamic foreign policy
A.        Political stability
B.        Military capability
C.        Mass party
D.        Economic stability
Nigeria is member of the Commonwealth of Nations because she was once ruled by
A.        France
B.        Russia
C.        United States of America
D.        Great Britain

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR GOVERNMENT 2005/2006

1. In the British parliamentary system of government, the monarch can be referred to as the queen in parliament. Ans. A

2. In Nigeria representation of states in the upper house is based on equity. Whereas, in the lower house, representation is based on population or the number of constituencies in each state Ans. D

3. Conditions for forming a federation do not include small population. On the contrary, large size of country and great population may genera the desire for federalism in a state Ans. A

4. One of the characteristic of written constitution is that its introductory part always contains on the essence of the constitution. This is otherwise referred to as a preamble Ans. C

5. Voting of elections in Nigeria is limited to age 18 and above Ans. D

6. Public opinion is an opinion that is widely shared by the majority of the people. It functions better under a Democratic government Ans. A

7. The northern emir had officials who functions as a body of advisers. The officials included: the waziri, the magaji, the galadima, the sarkin-fada, the sarkin-ruwa, the sarkin-pawa, the madawaki, and the yan Ans. A

8. The main motive of the imperialist penetration was to trade. Ans. C

9. The 1963 constitution in Nigeria is known as the republican constitution. This is because it was in 1963 that the monarchical parliamentary system which had been in existence since 1960 was replaced with that of the republican. Ans. C

10. The national security commission is chaired by the inspector-general of police. Ans. C

11. Matters of which the federal government alone can legislate are called exclusive list while those shared between the federal and state government are called concurrent list. The left over matters which are not placed under the exclusive or concurrent list are called the residual list Ans. A.

12. Bye-law are those rules and regulations made by local authorities and public corporations for effective running and performance of their duties Ans. C

13. One most important achievement of the military is preserving Nigerian unity Ans. C

14. Mass party is not necessary for a dynamic foreign policy. Ans. C

15. Nigeria is member of the Commonwealth of Nations because she was once ruled by Great Britain Ans. D

Summary of answers (Government 2005/06)

1.A 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.C 11.A 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.D

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for Government 2006/07

Indicate the correct option in each of the following questions

Franchise means the
A.        Right of all French citizens to vote
B.        Right of all adults to vote
C.        Right of al aliens to vote
D.        Right of all property owners to vote
Citizenship can be acquired by
A. Nationalism
B. Indigenization
C. naturalization
D. communalism
In unitary system of government power is derived from
A.        A rigid constitution
B.        The judiciary
C.        Executive head of state
D.        One source of authority
The power allocated to the federal government in a federation are primarily contained in the
A.        Central legislative list
B.        Exclusive legislative list
C.        Residual legislative list
D.        Concurrent legislative list
A constitution is said to be rigid if it
A.        Can only be interpreted by the military
B.        Is written by different author
C.        Cannot be amended by the executive
D.        Has cumbersome provision for its amendment
Which of the following political parties in Nigeria formed the opposition in the house of representative during the first republic?
A.        NCNC and AG
B.        NCNC and UMBC
C.        NPC and AG
D.        AG and UMBC
Re-tapism in the civil service refers to
A.        The use of red tapes on document
B.        Slowness of action
C.        The cooperation between civil servants and politicians
D.        Politicization of civil service
One of the functions of political parties is to
A.        Make laws
B.        Declare a state emergency
C.        Interpret the constitution
D.        Aggregate interest
Immediately after the Nigerian Civil War, Gowon’s regime embarked on
A.        Rejuvenation, rehabilitation and reconstruction
B.        Reconciliation, rehabilitation and reconstruction
C.        Rebuilding, rejoicing and regimentation
D.        Rehabilitation, repression and renaissance
The Nigerian council was created by
A.        Frederick Lugard
B.        Arthur Richards
C.        Hugh Clifford
D.        Bernard Bourdillon
The census crises of 1962/63 was caused by
A.        The 1959 pre-independent election
B.        Revenue allocation formulation
C.        Goes irregularities and figure allocation
D.        Awolowo’s strong belief in move towards a socialist system of government for Nigeria
Africa became the centerpiece of Nigerian’s foreign policy under the regime of
A.        Tafawa Balewa
B.        Yakubu Gowon
C.        Murtala Mohammed
D.        Shehu Shagari
Which of the following is not an OPEC member state?
A.        Nigeria
B.        Indonesia
C.        Venezuela
D.        Ghana
Which of the following is permanent in international politics?
A.        Bilateral relationship
B.        Economic aid
C.        Friendship
D.        Permanent interest
The major objective of OPEC is to
A.        Increase oil production
B.        Decrease oil production
C.        Stop oil production
D.        Stabilize oil price

UNN Post UTME Answers for Government 2006/07

1. Franchise or suffrage means the right to vote universal adult franchise is a kind of franchise that allows all adults to vote without gender, race or religious discrimination Ans. B

2. Naturalization is the process by which national of other nations are granted citizenship after satisfying the prescribed requirements. Ans. C

3. In the unitary system of government, power is concentrated in the hands of a single authority which delegates it to subordinate bodies. Ans. D

4. The powers allocated to the central government in a federation are primarily contained in the exclusive list, for more details, read 2005/06 answer to question No, 11 Ans. B

5. A constitution is said to be rigid if it had cumbersome provisions for its amendment. In other work, it cannot be easily amended. Ans. D

6. The political parties in Nigeria which formed the opposition in the house of representatives during the first republic were AG and UMBC Ans. D

7. Red-taism in the civil service refers to bureaucracy. It is any organization in which prompt action is obstructed by insistence on unnecessary time-consuming procedures. Ans. B

8. One of the functions of political parties is to aggregate interests. They gather opinions expressed by individuals and groups on national issues and analyze them to produce a pubic policy. Ans. A

9. Immediately after the Nigeria civil war, Gowon’s regime embarked on reconciliation, rehabilitation and reconstruction Ans. B

10. In 1916, lord Frederick Lugard created the Nigerian council in addition to the legislative council he met in Lagos. Ans. A

11. The census of 1962/63 was caused by gross irregularities and figure allocation. It was believed that the north influenced the results. The census figures favoured the northern and western regions at the expense of the eastern and mid-western regions. Ans. C

12. Africa became the center-price of Nigeria’s foreign policy under the regime of Murtala Mohammed. Africa was officially declared as the center-piece of Nigeria’s foreign policies by the Murtala/Obasanjo regime. The concept simply means that Africa will be Nigeria’s prime interest in foreign policies. Ans. C

13. The organization of petroleum exporting counties (OPEC) was formed in September 1960 by Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Iran, Venezuela and Kuwait. Later on, Qatar, Libya, Indonesia, Abu, Dihabi, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador and Gabon joined the organization. Ans. D

14. Bilateral relationship is permanent is international politics. Ans. A

15. The major objective of OPEC is to stabilize of price, OPEC was formed to stabilize the production and price of oil in the world market to eliminate oil and fluctuation. Ans. D

15. D

[/lightweight-accordion] [lightweight-accordion title=”ECONOMICS”]

UNN Post UTME Past Questions And Answers for Economics

NB: Make sure you have taken the test/quiz above. If you have, then go ahead and download the UNN Post UTME Past Questions in PDF or just view it directly on this website.

Download PDF

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for Economics 2005/2006

Scarcity in economics means that
A. Human economy are limitless
B. The economy has very few resource
C. The economy can scarcely produce anything
D. Resources are limited
Air is essential to life but commands no price! Diamond is not essential to life but commands high price! This is the paradox of
A. Thrift B. value
C. abundance D. scarcity
economics of scales operate only when
A. Marginal cost is falling with input
B. Average cost is falling with input
C. Fixed cost is variable
D. Variable cost is less than fixed cost
Efficiency in production involves;
A. reducing the size of workforce
B. production of a given output with
C. adoption of capital intensive technology
D. increasing the quantity of the fixed factor of production
An effect of inflation is that it …..
A. discourage trade by barter
B. favours debtors at the expense of creditors
C. increases the real income of salary earners
D. increases the values of country’s exports
The migration of young people from rural areas in Nigeria should help to raise the
A. Standard of living in the urban areas B. Total productivity of labour in the rural areas.
C. Marginal productivity of labour in the rural areas
D. Marginal productivity of labour in the urban areas
A modern corporation is owned by
A. Debenture holders
B. Ordinary shareholders
C. Preference shareholders
D. Creditors
One of the most important factors that should be considered in the location of an industry is:
A. Nearness to the financial center
B. Assured patronage by government functionaries
C. Availability of inputs and markets
D. Availability of adequate security
What is the term used to describe a policy aimed at promoting the local production of goods which are usually imported
A. Deregulation
B. Import substitution
C. Tariff reduction
D. Backward integration
Progressive tax structure is designed to:
A. Takes more from the income of the poor
B. Takes more from the income of the rich
C. Takes equal proportion of income from both the rich and the poor.
D. Reduces the problems emanating from tax imposition
The use of legally permissible means to reduce tax liabilities is known as tax
A. Evasion B. avoidance
C. relief D. exemption

The greatest proportion of government revenue in Nigeria comes
A. Export of raw material
B. Income taxes on individuals and businesses
C. custom duties and excise taxes
D. loans and grants form industrially advanced countries
Privatization of government-owned companies means the
A. relinquishing of government’s equity participation to private individuals
B. recapitalization of government owned companies
C. joint participation of government and private individual
D. commercialization and deregulation of eh economy
Gains form trade depend on
A. comparative advantage
B. absolute advantage
C. distributive cost advantage
D. absolute cost advantage
A country’s import price index by 1995 was 50 and her index if export price was 70 calculate the terms of trade.
A. 20% B. 71%
C. 120% D. 140%

UNN Post UTME Answers for Economics 2005/2006

1. Scarcity is the central or basic economic problems. Human wants are unlimited or insatiable but the means or resources with which to satisfy our multitude of wants are scarce. By scarce, the economist means that resources are limited. [D]

2. Value (in economics) is the worth of a commodity or services measured against other commodities or services.
The term generally refers to the total money revenue or price, for which an item will sell. Anything that is both desirable and scarce, such as diamond, can command power in eh exchanged ratio that is, it is can be exchanged for an items of equal or greater worth. [B]

3. Economies of scale opera when the average cost of production decreases as output increases. It is the driving force behind all mass production [B]

4. In all economic systems, waste should be brought to the minimum in order to achieve optimum productivity of factors. More quantities of the various factors do not matter so much as how efficiently such resources are used. Hence, efficiency in production involves reducing a given output with the lowest cost combination of factors of production [B]

5. Inflation has many effects such as:
. redistribution income
. creditors lose while debtors gain
. low level of saving and capital formation [B]

6. When more and more people, especially the youths, migrate form the rural areas to the urban areas, they help to raise the marginal productivity of labour in the urban areas. [D]

7. A modern corporation is owned by ordinary shareholders because it invites the public to subscribe for share. [B]

8. There are so many factors to consider in the location of an industry:
Proximity to the market
Government policy
-ease of access to raw materials (inputs)
-nearness to source of power [C]

9. Import substitution is the process by which Africa counties attempt to reduce the importation of manufactured goods by encouraging firms to produce these goods at home [B]

10. Not that tax systems fall into three main categories within the tax code: regressive. Proportional and progressive taxes. Regressive taxes are those tax, also referred to as a flat tax, impacts low-middle-income earners relatively equally. A progressive tax has more of an impact on higher –income individuals and businesses, and less of a financial impact on low-income earners [B]

11. The use of legally permissible means to reduce tax liabilities is known as tax avoidance. It refers to the efforts of a tax payer not to pay tax by finding legal loophole in the tax system. For example, he could discover a rule ambiguously stated. He can therefore easily defend himself legally if he does not pay tax, and interpret the rule in his own way. It is different form tax evasion which means an illegal act whereby people or companies try to pay less tax or even dodge the payment of taxes. [B]

12. Of all the type of taxes, the one that givens Nigeria more revenue than others is indirect tax. Indirect taxes include all custom duties (import and export duties), excise duties, sale tax, purchase tax etc. [C]

13. Privatization of government-owned companies means the sale of businesses and industries so that they are no longer owned by the government. In other words, t is the relinquishing of government’s equity participation to private individuals.

14. International trade is based on the theory of comparative costs which is an extension of the principle of comparative advantage. The law of comparative costs suggests that a country will produce for export those commodities it can produce more cheaply and import those which it can only produce at higher cost. By this such a country will make much gain form trade. [A]

15. Terms of trade is the rate which country’s exports are exchanged for its imports. It is the price ratio between export and imports, and measured by using the formula:

(𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑒𝑥𝑝𝑜𝑟𝑡 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒) / (𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑚𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑡 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒) x 100/1

From the given problem:
Import price index =50
Export price index =70
Terms of trade =70/50 x 100/1 = 140percent
[D]

SUMMARY OF ANSWERS [ECONOMICS 2005/06]

1.D 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.D 7.B 8.C 9.B 10.B 11.B 12.C 13.A 14.A 15.D

UNN Post UTME Past Questions for Economics 2006/2007

Which of the following best describes the production function?
A. It indicates best output to produce
B. It relates naira inputs to naira outputs
C. It relates physical outputs to physical inputs.
D. It indicates the best way to combine factors to produce any given output.

Given perfect competition in the capital market, the opportunity cost of capital is adequately reflected by the
A. Interest rate
B. Returns on capital
C. Alternate capital forgone
D. Shadow price of foreign
Which of the following reward is associated with entrepreneurship as a factor of production?
A. salaries B. profits
C. interests D. rents
In a market economy, the question of what, how and for whom to produce are solved by the
A. elected representative of the people
B. planning committee
C. price mechanism
D. government
At any given level of output, a firm’s total variable cost equals.
A. total cost less marginal cost
B. total cost less total cost
C. total cost less average cost
D. average variable cost and marginal variable cost.
The estimated dependency ratio of the population shown above is:
A. 11:9 B. 9:11
C. 7:3 D. 3.7
Which of the following factors is NOT responsible for the rural/urban drift in Nigeria?
A. The infrastructural facilities in the cities
B. Declining fertility if rural farmlands
C. Rural electrification programme
D. Higher living standards in urban area
The necessity of choice is due to the fact that
A. Human wants are insatiable
B. Customers like to maximize satisfaction
C. Resources are abundant
D. Consumers are selective.
What is meant by labour supply?
A. Number of people in working population
B. Number of men and hours they work.
C. Number of hours during which the middle-aged persons work
D. Number of workforce multiplied by the hour they worked
Any payment to a factor of production in excess of what is necessary to keep its present employment is known as
A. Real income B. profit
C. economics rent D. real wage
The market where there are many differentiate products is called:
A. monopoly
B. perfect competition
C. monopolistic competition
D. oligopoly
One of the dangers of localization of industries is age groups (years) distribution (%)
A. Residual unemployment
B. Mass unemployment
C. Structural unemployment
D. Cyclic unemployment
In commercial baking, an account from which a customer cannot withdraw money instantly is a
A. Demand deposit account
B. Time deposit account
C. Special deposit account
D. Saving deposit account
Banks can create more money by:
A. Increasing their cash ratio with the central bank
B. Issuing more bank cheques
C. Accepting more deposit from customers
D. Lending out money from customer’ deposits

The most important factor in ensuring Economic development is the
A. effective mobilization of domestic saving
B. presence of foreign account
C. formulation of appropriate government policies.
D. Attraction of foreign aid and grants

UNN POST UTME ANSWERS FOR ECONOMICS 2006/07

Production function relates physical outputs physical inputs. A production function tries to relate what is produced to what is used producing it. Ans. C

Given perfect competition in the capital market. The opportunity cost of capital is adequately reflected by the alternate capital foregone. Ans. C
The reward which accurse to the entrepreneur as a factor of production is profit. Profit is the monetary difference between the cost of production and marketing goods and services and the price subsequently receives. Ans. B
A market economy is an economy in which decisions regarding investment, production, and distribution are based on market determined supply and demand, and prices of goods and services are determined in free price system. Ans. C
At any given level of output, a firm’s total variable cost equals total cost less total fixed cost. The total variable cost include the cost of buying raw materials and the cost of labour. It changes with output (or scale of production). If Total cost =TC
Total fixed cost = TFC
Total variable cost = TVC
Then, TVC = TC-TFC
30 +25:45 =55:45 =11:9
Ans. A
Rural electrification programme is not responsible for the rural/urban drift in Nigeria. Ans. C
The necessity of choice is due to the fact that human wants are insatiable. Since want are unlimited and he resources available to satisfy them are limited choice is constantly made between alternative wants. Ans. A
The term labour supply means the total number of people available for employment in a county; that is, the total Working population or labour. Ans. A
Any payment to a factor of production in excess of what is necessary to keep that it presents employment is known as economic rent. Ans. C
The market where there are many differentiated products is called monopolistic competition. This means that the products or commodities are not homogenous. Ans. C
The term localization of industry refers to the concentration of many firms of an industry in a particular area. Such firms produce commodities which belong to the same industrial group. One of the danger of localization of industries is structural unemployment. This arises if there is a fall in demand for products of a highly localized industry. The industry would decline and many workers have to be retrenched, resulting in mass unemployment. Ans. C
In commercial banking, an account from which a customer cannot withdraw money instantly is a time deposits account. Ans. B
Banks can create more money (credits) by lending out money form customer’s deposits. Ans. D
The most important factor in ensuring economic development is sound economic planning and the formulation of appropriate government policies. Ans. C

Summary of Answers [ECONOMICS 2006/07]

1.C 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.C 13.B 14.D 15.C

[/lightweight-accordion]

UNN School Fees for Newly Admitted Students (All Courses)

UNN freshers’ school fees are between N110,800 and N120,550 depending on the course of study. The UNN acceptance fee for fresh students is N30,000.

See the school fees for each course below:

Agricultural Economics – N110,800
Agricultural Extension – N110,800
Animal Science – N110,800
Crop Science – N110,800
Home Science – N110,800
Soil Science – N110,800
Food Science and Technology – N110,800
Nutrition and Dietetics – N110,800
Archeology and Tourism – N110,800
Combined Arts – N110,800
French – N110,800
English and Literary Studies – N110,800
Fine and Applied Arts – N110,800
FRENCH/GERMAN/RUSSIA – N110,800
German – N110,800
History and International Studies – N110,800
Igbo – N110,800
Language and Linguistics Igbo – N110,800
Linguistics and Nigerian Languages – N110,800
Mass Communication – N110,800
Music – N110,800
Theater and Film Studies – N110,800
Anesthesia – 120,550
Anatomy – N120,550
Physiology – N112, 300
Botany – N112, 300
Zoology – N112, 300
Combined Biological Sciences – N112,300
Biochemistry – N112,300
Microbiology – N112, 300
Accountancy – N114, 550
Banking and Finance – N114, 550
Business Management – N114, 550
Marketing – N114,550
Dentistry – N120,550
Adult Education and Community Development – N110,800
Creative Arts – N110,800
Early Childhood Education – N110,800
Education and Economics – N110,800
Education and Geography – N110,800
Education and Igbo – N110,800
Education Arts – N110,800
Education and Political Science – N110,800
Education and English – N110,800
Education Biology – N110,800
Education Chemistry – N110,800
Education and Fine Arts – N110,800
Education Mathematics – N110,800
Education Physics – N110,800
Education Physics – N110,800
Education Science – N110,800
Education Social Science – N110,800
Education History – N110,800
Guidance and Counseling – N110,800
Health Education – N110,800
Special Education – N110,800
Library and Information Science – N110,800
Agric and Bioresources Engineering – 110,800
Civil Engineering – 116,050
Electrical Engineering – 116,050
Electronic Engineering – 116,050
Mechanical Engineering – 116,050
Metallurgical and Material Engineering – 116,050
Mechatronics Engineering – 116,050
Architecture – 114,550
Estate Management – 114,550
Geoinformatics and Surveying – 114,550
Urban and Regional Planning – 114,550
Medical Laboratory Science – N120,550
Medical Radiography – N120,550
Medical Rehabilitation – N120,550
Nursing Science – N120,550
Law – N119,050
Medicine and Surgery – N120,550
Pharmacy – N120,550
Computer Science – N112,300
Computer/Statistics – N112,300
Geology – N112,300
Mathematics – N112300
Physics and Astronomy – N112,300
Pure and Industrial Chemistry – N112,300
Statistics – N112,300
Science Laboratory Technology – N112,300
Economics – N110,800
Geography – N110,800
Philosophy – N110,800
Political Sciences – N110,800
Psychology – N110,800
Public Administration and Local Government – N110,800
Religious Studies – N110,800
Sociology and Anthropology – N110,800
Social Work – N110,800
Veterinary Medicine – N119,050
Agric Education – N110,800
Agric Science Education – N110,800
Business Education – N110,800
Computer Education – N110,800
Home Economics Education – N110,800
Industrial Technical Education – N110,800

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Esther

10 months ago

My UNN post utme app requested for opt code ,where do I see the code

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Guac.vee

1 year ago

This was really helpful
Thanks a lot
Now with this app I would be able to pass my post utme and this info would make me know what to expect in the exams 🙂