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Live Questions That Came Out in 2026 JAMB Exam (UPDATED)

Live JAMB Questions That Came Out During the 2026 UTME (Refresh Your Memory).

The 2026 UTME is currently ongoing, and most students who have written the exam are already waiting for their results.

Here at Allschool, we wish them the best. For those who are yet to write their exam, we believe it would be helpful to take a look at some of the questions that came out in the current 2026 CBT Examination. We will also highlight the exact topics that appeared.

We advise you to use this opportunity to refresh your memory—and if possible, re-read the topics listed. This will boost your preparation.

Questions That Came Out on Thursday, 16th April 2026

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

  1. Read the passage and answer the question:
    The Lekki Headmaster maintained strict discipline and fairness among students and staff. What is the central idea of the passage?
    A) Corruption in schools
    B) Discipline and fairness in leadership
    C) Poverty in education
    D) Political interference
    E) Student rebellion
  2. Choose the word nearest in meaning to “prudent.”
    A) Careful
    B) Wasteful
    C) Reckless
    D) Lazy
    E) Weak
  3. Choose the word opposite in meaning to “hostile.”
    A) Friendly
    B) Wicked
    C) Violent
    D) Angry
    E) Harsh
  4. In which of the following words is the stress on the second syllable?
    A) TAble
    B) reLAX
    C) DOCtor
    D) WINdow
    E) TEAcher
  5. Which of the following words has the same vowel sound as “seat”?
    A) Sit
    B) Set
    C) Beat
    D) Sat
    E) Cut
  6. Choose the option that best completes the sentence:
    The principal insisted that every student _____ present at the assembly.
    A) is
    B) was
    C) be
    D) are
    E) were
  7. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to “expand.”
    A) Grow
    B) Stretch
    C) Contract
    D) Increase
    E) Develop
  8. Identify the word that has a silent consonant.
    A) Comb
    B) Dog
    C) Pen
    D) Hat
    E) Run
  9. Choose the correct interpretation of the idiom: “kick the bucket.”
    A) To fight
    B) To run away
    C) To die
    D) To celebrate
    E) To complain
  10. Choose the correct spelling:
    A) Accomodation
    B) Accommodation
    C) Acommodation
    D) Accommmodation
    E) Accomadation
  11. Which of the following has a different consonant sound?
    A) Chair
    B) Chop
    C) Character
    D) Church
    E) Cheap
  12. Choose the synonym of “meticulous.”
    A) Careless
    B) Thorough
    C) Rough
    D) Lazy
    E) Weak
  13. Choose the antonym of “abundant.”
    A) Plenty
    B) Enough
    C) Scarce
    D) Many
    E) Full
  14. In which word is the stress on the first syllable?
    A) reTURN
    B) beGIN
    C) TAble
    D) aBOVE
    E) reLAX
  15. Choose the option that best completes the sentence:
    She has been waiting here _____ two hours.
    A) since
    B) for
    C) at
    D) by
    E) during
  16. Which of the following words contains a diphthong?
    A) Boy
    B) Sit
    C) Pen
    D) Cat
    E) Run
  17. Choose the correct interpretation of the sentence:
    “The man is hard to please.”
    A) The man pleases others
    B) It is difficult to satisfy the man
    C) The man is pleasing
    D) The man is happy
    E) The man is weak
  18. Choose the synonym of “ancient.”
    A) Modern
    B) Old
    C) New
    D) Recent
    E) Fresh
  19. Choose the antonym of “victory.”
    A) Success
    B) Triumph
    C) Defeat
    D) Glory
    E) Achievement
  20. The tone of a passage refers to the writer’s:
    A) Attitude
    B) Grammar
    C) Vocabulary
    D) Spelling
    E) Structure

GOVERNMENT

  1. Which of the following best explains constitutionalism beyond the mere existence of a constitution?
    A) Supremacy of legislature
    B) Limitation of governmental powers in practice
    C) Codification of laws
    D) Judicial review only
    E) Military control
  2. In a federal system of government, residual powers are:
    A) Shared equally
    B) Given to local governments only
    C) Determined by the constitution
    D) Used during emergencies only
    E) Controlled by judiciary
  3. The doctrine of separation of powers is most undermined when:
    A) Legislature is bicameral
    B) Judiciary is independent
    C) Executive controls legislative agenda
    D) Federalism is practiced
    E) Elections are conducted
  4. Which political theory justifies the state as a means of protecting private property?
    A) Marxism
    B) Lockean theory
    C) Fascism
    D) Anarchism
    E) Socialism
  5. A major criticism of delegated legislation is that it:
    A) Strengthens democracy
    B) Concentrates power in the executive
    C) Promotes accountability
    D) Encourages debates
    E) Weakens laws
  6. Which of the following is a feature of a state?
    A) Religion
    B) Population
    C) Culture
    D) Language
    E) Tradition
  7. Nigeria’s foreign policy under Obasanjo focused on:
    A) Isolation
    B) Regional cooperation
    C) Military expansion
    D) Colonization
    E) Neutrality
  8. The pre-colonial Hausa/Fulani political system was mainly:
    A) Democratic
    B) Theocratic
    C) Republican
    D) Socialist
    E) Federal
  9. The Commonwealth is an association of:
    A) European countries
    B) Former British colonies
    C) Asian nations
    D) African states only
    E) Oil-producing nations
  10. OPEC is concerned with:
    A) Agriculture
    B) Oil production
    C) Education
    D) Trade
    E) Health
  11. Feudalism is based on:
    A) Industrialization
    B) Land ownership
    C) Trade
    D) Democracy
    E) Equality
  12. Capitalism is characterized by:
    A) State ownership
    B) Private ownership
    C) Communal ownership
    D) Equality
    E) Military rule
  13. Socialism emphasizes:
    A) Private control
    B) State control of resources
    C) Military rule
    D) Religion
    E) Individualism
  14. Election is the process of:
    A) Appointment
    B) Voting to choose leaders
    C) Law making
    D) Military takeover
    E) Judicial review
  15. Pressure groups are formed to:
    A) Govern directly
    B) Influence government policies
    C) Conduct elections
    D) Make laws
    E) Judge cases
  16. ECOWAS has how many member states?
    A) 10
    B) 12
    C) 15
    D) 18
    E) 20
  17. The principle of rule of law was popularized by:
    A) Karl Marx
    B) A.V. Dicey
    C) John Locke
    D) Rousseau
    E) Hobbes
  18. The founder of communism is:
    A) Locke
    B) Karl Marx
    C) Plato
    D) Aristotle
    E) Hobbes
  19. The Clifford Constitution of 1922 introduced:
    A) Federalism
    B) Elective principle
    C) Military rule
    D) Monarchy
    E) Republic
  20. The Lyttleton Constitution of 1954 established:
    A) Unitary system
    B) Federal system
    C) Military rule
    D) Confederal system
    E) Monarchy

ECONOMICS

  1. Demand is defined as:
    A) Desire for goods
    B) Desire backed by ability to pay
    C) Supply of goods
    D) Production
    E) Distribution
  2. The law of demand states that:
    A) Price ↑ demand ↑
    B) Price ↓ demand ↓
    C) Price ↑ demand ↓
    D) Demand constant
    E) Supply constant
  3. The supply curve slopes:
    A) Downward
    B) Upward
    C) Vertical
    D) Horizontal
    E) Circular
  4. Marginal cost is the:
    A) Total cost
    B) Cost of producing one more unit
    C) Fixed cost
    D) Average cost
    E) Variable cost
  5. One function of money is:
    A) Consumption
    B) Medium of exchange
    C) Production
    D) Taxation
    E) Storage only
  6. Inflation is a:
    A) Fall in price level
    B) Rise in general price level
    C) Stable price
    D) No price
    E) Controlled price
  7. Deflation refers to:
    A) Increase in prices
    B) Decrease in prices
    C) Stability
    D) Inflation
    E) Hyperinflation
  8. Fiscal policy involves:
    A) Interest rates
    B) Government spending and taxation
    C) Banking
    D) Trade
    E) Production
  9. The Central Bank controls:
    A) Agriculture
    B) Money supply
    C) Education
    D) Health
    E) Transport
  10. Production is the:
    A) Buying of goods
    B) Creation of goods and services
    C) Selling
    D) Saving
    E) Distribution
  11. Consumer behaviour studies:
    A) Producers
    B) Buyers
    C) Sellers
    D) Government
    E) Workers
  12. Equilibrium price is where:
    A) Demand = Supply
    B) Demand > Supply
    C) Supply > Demand
    D) No demand
    E) No supply
  13. Fixed cost is cost that:
    A) Changes with output
    B) Does not change with output
    C) Depends on price
    D) Depends on demand
    E) Depends on supply
  14. Variable cost is cost that:
    A) Remains constant
    B) Changes with output
    C) Is fixed
    D) Is zero
    E) Is constant
  15. Opportunity cost is the:
    A) Extra cost
    B) Forgone alternative
    C) Total cost
    D) Fixed cost
    E) Variable cost
  16. Utility means:
    A) Satisfaction
    B) Production
    C) Profit
    D) Loss
    E) Trade
  17. A market is:
    A) A place only
    B) Interaction of buyers and sellers
    C) A shop
    D) A store
    E) A warehouse
  18. Monopoly is a market with:
    A) Many sellers
    B) One seller
    C) Two sellers
    D) Many buyers
    E) No buyers
  19. Price mechanism allocates:
    A) Resources
    B) People
    C) Goods randomly
    D) Money
    E) Labour
  20. Law of supply states that:
    A) Price ↑ supply ↑
    B) Price ↑ supply ↓
    C) Supply constant
    D) Demand changes
    E) No relationship

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES (CRS)

  1. The story of Jonah teaches:
    A) Pride
    B) Obedience to God
    C) Hatred
    D) Fear
    E) Greed
  2. Paul’s doctrine of justification states that:
    A) Salvation is by works
    B) Salvation is by faith
    C) Only Jews are saved
    D) Law is superior
    E) Grace is irrelevant
  3. King Saul was rejected because of:
    A) Obedience
    B) Disobedience
    C) Faith
    D) Love
    E) Prayer
  4. King Josiah is known for:
    A) Idol worship
    B) Religious reforms
    C) War
    D) Trade
    E) Politics
  5. Jesus was betrayed by:
    A) Peter
    B) John
    C) Judas
    D) James
    E) Andrew
  6. The Good Samaritan teaches:
    A) Ethnic superiority
    B) Practical love
    C) Legalism
    D) Ritual purity
    E) Judgment
  7. Justification means:
    A) Condemnation
    B) Being declared righteous
    C) Punishment
    D) Sin
    E) Law
  8. Paul preached mainly to:
    A) Jews
    B) Gentiles
    C) Romans
    D) Greeks
    E) Africans
  9. The Bible has:
    A) Two Testaments
    B) Three parts
    C) Four sections
    D) Five divisions
    E) Six books
  10. The Old Testament focuses on:
    A) Jesus
    B) Israel
    C) Church
    D) Rome
    E) Greeks
  11. The New Testament focuses on:
    A) Creation
    B) Jesus and early Church
    C) Law
    D) Kings
    E) Judges
  12. The Ten Commandments were given to:
    A) Abraham
    B) Moses
    C) David
    D) Joshua
    E) Elijah
  13. Faith is:
    A) Doubt
    B) Trust in God
    C) Fear
    D) Weakness
    E) Sin
  14. Sin separates man from:
    A) Man
    B) God
    C) Nature
    D) Society
    E) Law
  15. Salvation is through:
    A) Works
    B) Faith
    C) Law
    D) Sacrifice
    E) Ritual
  16. Jesus performed miracles to:
    A) Show power
    B) Help people
    C) Gain fame
    D) Fight wars
    E) Teach only
  17. Prayer is:
    A) Talking to man
    B) Talking to God
    C) Singing
    D) Reading
    E) Writing
  18. Resurrection means:
    A) Death
    B) Rising from the dead
    C) Sleep
    D) Burial
    E) Judgment
  19. The fruit of the Spirit includes:
    A) Hate
    B) Love
    C) Anger
    D) Pride
    E) Fear
  20. The greatest commandment is:
    A) Love God and neighbor
    B) Keep law
    C) Pray daily
    D) Fast always
    E) Give offering

BIOLOGY

  1. Which of the following is not a function of blood?
    A) Maintenance of body temperature
    B) Formation of clot
    C) Distribution of bile
    D) Transportation of excretory materials
    E) Transport of oxygen
  2. In the ABO blood group system, group O lacks:
    A) Antibodies
    B) A and B antigens
    C) Rhesus factor
    D) Haemoglobin
    E) Plasma
  3. Collenchyma tissue is responsible for:
    A) Transport
    B) Support
    C) Storage
    D) Photosynthesis
    E) Respiration
  4. The dark reaction depends on:
    A) Oxygen
    B) ATP and NADPH
    C) Water
    D) CO₂ only
    E) Light
  5. The vector of onchocerciasis is:
    A) Anopheles
    B) Glossina
    C) Simulium
    D) Culex
    E) Housefly
  6. The hepatic portal vein:
    A) Is largest vein
    B) Begins and ends in capillaries
    C) Carries oxygen
    D) Is shortest vein
    E) Is smallest vein
  7. The number of bones in the middle ear is:
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    E) 6
  8. The cerebellum controls:
    A) Thinking
    B) Coordination
    C) Breathing
    D) Digestion
    E) Vision
  9. During anaerobic respiration, pyruvate is:
    A) Reduced to lactic acid
    B) Oxidized to ethanol
    C) Reduced to water
    D) Oxidized to CO₂
    E) Converted to glucose
  10. End product of carbohydrate digestion is:
    A) Amino acid
    B) Glucose
    C) Fatty acid
    D) Glycerol
    E) Sucrose
  11. Prokaryotic cell wall contains:
    A) Cellulose
    B) Protein
    C) Peptidoglycan
    D) Lipid
    E) Starch
  12. Xylem transports:
    A) Food
    B) Water
    C) Hormones
    D) Oxygen
    E) Sugar
  13. Phloem transports:
    A) Water
    B) Food
    C) Oxygen
    D) Minerals
    E) Nitrogen
  14. Photosynthesis occurs in:
    A) Mitochondria
    B) Chloroplast
    C) Nucleus
    D) Ribosome
    E) Cytoplasm
  15. Enzymes are:
    A) Hormones
    B) Catalysts
    C) Acids
    D) Bases
    E) Salts
  16. Respiration releases:
    A) Energy
    B) Water
    C) CO₂
    D) Heat
    E) All of the above
  17. DNA carries:
    A) Energy
    B) Genetic information
    C) Water
    D) Oxygen
    E) Food
  18. Cell membrane is:
    A) Permeable
    B) Selectively permeable
    C) Impermeable
    D) Thick
    E) Hard
  19. Tissue is:
    A) Group of similar cells
    B) Organ
    C) System
    D) Organism
    E) Atom
  20. Blood transports:
    A) Oxygen
    B) Nutrients
    C) Waste
    D) Hormones
    E) All of the above

CHEMISTRY

  1. The addition of a catalyst to an equilibrium reaction will:
    A) Increase yield
    B) Increase reaction rate
    C) Shift equilibrium
    D) Stop reaction
    E) Reduce yield
  2. Incomplete oxidation of ethanol produces:
    A) Ethanoic acid
    B) Ethanal
    C) Methane
    D) Propanol
    E) Ethene
  3. The hybridization in methane is:
    A) sp
    B) sp²
    C) sp³
    D) p
    E) s
  4. A strong acid is:
    A) HCl
    B) CH₃COOH
    C) NH₃
    D) NaOH
    E) H₂O
  5. Hard water is water that:
    A) Is pure
    B) Does not lather easily
    C) Is soft
    D) Is distilled
    E) Is clean
  6. Electrolysis of brine produces:
    A) H₂, Cl₂, NaOH
    B) CO₂
    C) O₂
    D) NaCl
    E) HCl
  7. The Frasch process is used to extract:
    A) Iron
    B) Sulphur
    C) Copper
    D) Gold
    E) Zinc
  8. Neutralization reaction produces:
    A) Salt and water
    B) Acid
    C) Base
    D) Gas
    E) Metal
  9. A synthesis reaction involves:
    A) Decomposition
    B) Combination
    C) Replacement
    D) Exchange
    E) Reduction
  10. Heating CaCO₃ produces:
    A) CaO + CO₂
    B) Ca + O₂
    C) CO₂ only
    D) CaO only
    E) Ca(OH)₂
  11. Hydrogen reacts with chlorine in the presence of:
    A) Darkness
    B) Sunlight
    C) Cold
    D) Vacuum
    E) Water
  12. Soda lime is preferred because it is:
    A) Strong
    B) Less corrosive
    C) Expensive
    D) Reactive
    E) Colorful
  13. Ester reacts with ammonia to form:
    A) Amide
    B) Acid
    C) Alcohol
    D) Salt
    E) Water
  14. Electronegativity increases:
    A) Across a period
    B) Down a group
    C) Randomly
    D) In metals
    E) In gases
  15. Faraday’s law relates:
    A) Mass and electricity
    B) Heat and work
    C) Pressure and volume
    D) Speed and time
    E) Energy and force
  16. An oxide soluble in base is:
    A) Acidic oxide
    B) Basic oxide
    C) Neutral oxide
    D) Amphoteric oxide
    E) Metal oxide
  17. NaHCO₃ with base produces:
    A) Salt and water
    B) Acid
    C) Gas
    D) Metal
    E) Oxygen
  18. pH of strong acid is:
    A) High
    B) Low
    C) Neutral
    D) 7
    E) 14
  19. Alkali is:
    A) Acid
    B) Soluble base
    C) Salt
    D) Gas
    E) Metal
  20. Organic chemistry studies:
    A) Metals
    B) Carbon compounds
    C) Water
    D) Air
    E) Minerals

PHYSICS

  1. A boat crosses a river flowing at 0.75 m/s and lands at an angle of 30°. The velocity across the river is:
    A) 0.38 m/s
    B) 0.65 m/s
    C) 0.75 m/s
    D) 1.50 m/s
    E) 0.50 m/s
  2. A diverging lens is also known as a:
    A) Convex lens
    B) Concave lens
    C) Plane lens
    D) Cylindrical lens
    E) Prism
  3. A step-down transformer has:
    A) Np = Ns
    B) Np > Ns
    C) Np < Ns
    D) Ns = 0
    E) Np = 0
  4. Velocity is defined as:
    A) Distance only
    B) Speed with direction
    C) Speed only
    D) Acceleration
    E) Force
  5. Acceleration is:
    A) Change in velocity
    B) Speed
    C) Distance
    D) Force
    E) Energy
  6. Force is given by:
    A) mv
    B) ma
    C) vt
    D) pt
    E) et
  7. Work done is:
    A) Force × distance
    B) Force × time
    C) Energy × time
    D) Mass × speed
    E) Distance × time
  8. Power is:
    A) Work/time
    B) Force/time
    C) Energy × time
    D) Distance/time
    E) Mass/time
  9. Unit of force is:
    A) Joule
    B) Watt
    C) Newton
    D) Pascal
    E) Volt
  10. Unit of energy is:
    A) Newton
    B) Joule
    C) Watt
    D) Volt
    E) Ampere
  11. Light travels fastest in:
    A) Water
    B) Air
    C) Vacuum
    D) Glass
    E) Metal
  12. Reflection is:
    A) Bending of light
    B) Bouncing of light
    C) Absorption
    D) Diffusion
    E) Refraction
  13. Refraction is:
    A) Bouncing of light
    B) Bending of light
    C) Absorption
    D) Emission
    E) Diffusion
  14. Ohm’s law states that:
    A) V = IR
    B) P = IV
    C) F = ma
    D) W = Fd
    E) E = mc²
  15. Resistance is measured in:
    A) Ohm
    B) Volt
    C) Ampere
    D) Watt
    E) Joule
  16. Electric current is:
    A) Flow of charge
    B) Flow of mass
    C) Flow of energy
    D) Flow of light
    E) Flow of force
  17. A magnet attracts:
    A) Wood
    B) Iron
    C) Plastic
    D) Rubber
    E) Glass
  18. Density is:
    A) Mass/volume
    B) Volume/mass
    C) Mass × volume
    D) Force × area
    E) Pressure × volume
  19. Pressure is:
    A) Force/area
    B) Area/force
    C) Mass × area
    D) Volume/force
    E) Energy/area
  20. Heat transfer by conduction occurs mainly in:
    A) Solids
    B) Liquids
    C) Gases
    D) Vacuum
    E) Air only

LITERATURE

  1. Defamiliarization is associated with:
    A) Romanticism
    B) Formalism
    C) Realism
    D) Structuralism
    E) Classicism
  2. A tragic hero’s downfall is caused by:
    A) Fate
    B) Hamartia
    C) Society
    D) Gods
    E) War
  3. Dramatic irony occurs when:
    A) Audience knows more than characters
    B) Characters know more
    C) Plot changes
    D) Narrator lies
    E) Dialogue is absent
  4. A bildungsroman focuses on:
    A) War
    B) Growth of character
    C) Religion
    D) Politics
    E) Culture
  5. Protagonist is the:
    A) Villain
    B) Main character
    C) Narrator
    D) Author
    E) Reader
  6. Antagonist is the:
    A) Hero
    B) Opponent
    C) Friend
    D) Narrator
    E) Author
  7. Theme is the:
    A) Message of the work
    B) Plot
    C) Character
    D) Setting
    E) Style
  8. Plot refers to:
    A) Storyline
    B) Theme
    C) Character
    D) Style
    E) Tone
  9. Setting is:
    A) Time and place
    B) Theme
    C) Plot
    D) Character
    E) Style
  10. A metaphor is a:
    A) Direct comparison
    B) Indirect comparison
    C) Sound device
    D) Symbol
    E) Irony
  11. A simile uses:
    A) Like or as
    B) Direct comparison
    C) Symbol
    D) Irony
    E) Tone
  12. Alliteration is repetition of:
    A) Initial sounds
    B) Words
    C) Ideas
    D) Themes
    E) Lines
  13. Irony is:
    A) Contrast between expectation and reality
    B) Similar meaning
    C) Same meaning
    D) Literal meaning
    E) Hidden meaning
  14. Foreshadowing suggests:
    A) Future events
    B) Past events
    C) Present events
    D) Theme
    E) Character
  15. Climax is the:
    A) Beginning
    B) Turning point
    C) Ending
    D) Resolution
    E) Theme
  16. Resolution is the:
    A) Conflict
    B) Ending
    C) Beginning
    D) Theme
    E) Plot
  17. Tone refers to:
    A) Author’s attitude
    B) Reader’s feeling
    C) Character
    D) Plot
    E) Theme
  18. Mood refers to:
    A) Reader’s feeling
    B) Writer’s attitude
    C) Character
    D) Plot
    E) Theme
  19. Genre is:
    A) Type of literature
    B) Theme
    C) Plot
    D) Style
    E) Setting
  20. Narrative voice is the:
    A) Speaker in the text
    B) Listener
    C) Writer
    D) Reader
    E) Theme

Questions That Came Out on Friday, 17th April 2026.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

  1. Choose the word nearest in meaning to “caller.”
    A) Visitor
    B) Speaker
    C) Guest
    D) Stranger
    E) Messenger
  2. Choose the word nearest in meaning to “naive.”
    A) Wise
    B) Innocent
    C) Clever
    D) Experienced
    E) Harsh
  3. Choose the word nearest in meaning to “sapping.”
    A) Strengthening
    B) Weakening
    C) Building
    D) Increasing
    E) Repairing
  4. Which of the following words rhymes with “hay”?
    A) Day
    B) Key
    C) Boy
    D) Cow
    E) Go
  5. Which of the following words rhymes with “fuel”?
    A) Fool
    B) Duel
    C) Full
    D) Fall
    E) Feel
  6. Choose the antonym of “prudent.”
    A) Wise
    B) Careful
    C) Reckless
    D) Intelligent
    E) Quiet
  7. Choose the synonym of “fastidious.”
    A) Careless
    B) Detailed
    C) Rough
    D) Weak
    E) Slow
  8. Choose the option that best completes the sentence:
    He insisted that she _____ the truth.
    A) tells
    B) tell
    C) told
    D) telling
    E) has told
  9. Choose the correct interpretation of the idiom: “douse cold water on.”
    A) Encourage
    B) Discourage
    C) Ignore
    D) Attack
    E) Support
  10. Identify the word with a silent consonant.
    A) Comb
    B) Pen
    C) Boy
    D) Run
    E) Cat
  11. Choose the antonym of “abundant.”
    A) Plenty
    B) Enough
    C) Scarce
    D) Many
    E) Full
  12. Which of the following has a different vowel sound?
    A) Beat
    B) Seat
    C) Sit
    D) Meat
    E) Heat
  13. Choose the correct stress pattern:
    A) REcord (noun)
    B) reCORD (verb)
    C) Both A and B
    D) None
    E) All
  14. Choose the synonym of “ancient.”
    A) Modern
    B) Old
    C) New
    D) Recent
    E) Fresh
  15. Choose the antonym of “expand.”
    A) Grow
    B) Stretch
    C) Contract
    D) Increase
    E) Develop
  16. Choose the correct spelling:
    A) Accomodation
    B) Accommodation
    C) Acommodation
    D) Accommmodation
    E) Accomadation
  17. Which word contains a diphthong?
    A) Boy
    B) Sit
    C) Pen
    D) Cat
    E) Run
  18. Choose the correct interpretation:
    “The man is hard to please.”
    A) He pleases others
    B) He is difficult to satisfy
    C) He is kind
    D) He is happy
    E) He is weak
  19. Choose the antonym of “victory.”
    A) Success
    B) Triumph
    C) Defeat
    D) Glory
    E) Achievement
  20. The tone of a passage refers to the writer’s:
    A) Attitude
    B) Grammar
    C) Vocabulary
    D) Spelling
    E) Structure

MATHEMATICS

  1. Simplify: (2^3 \times 2^4)
    A) 2⁷
    B) 2¹²
    C) 2⁸
    D) 2⁶
    E) 2⁵
  2. Evaluate: (3^{-2})
    A) 9
    B) 1/9
    C) -9
    D) 3
    E) -3
  3. If (5^x = 125), find x.
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    E) 6
  4. Simplify: (\sqrt{50})
    A) 5√2
    B) 10√2
    C) 25√2
    D) 2√5
    E) √25
  5. Rationalize: (\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})
    A) √2
    B) √2/2
    C) 2√2
    D) 1/2
    E) √4
  6. Simplify: (\sqrt{18} + \sqrt{8})
    A) 5√2
    B) 3√2
    C) 4√2
    D) 6√2
    E) 2√2
  7. Evaluate: ((\sqrt{3})^2)
    A) 3
    B) 6
    C) 9
    D) √3
    E) 1
  8. Find the mean of 1, 2, 3, 4
    A) 2
    B) 2.5
    C) 3
    D) 3.5
    E) 4
  9. Find the mean deviation of 1, 2, 3, 4
    A) 1
    B) 0.5
    C) 2
    D) 1.5
    E) 2.5
  10. Solve: (x + 3 = 7)
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    E) 6
  11. Solve: (2x = 10)
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    E) 6
  12. If (x^2 = 16), find x.
    A) 4
    B) -4
    C) ±4
    D) 8
    E) -8
  13. Solve: (x^2 – 5x + 6 = 0)
    A) 2 or 3
    B) 1 or 6
    C) 3 or 4
    D) 2 or 4
    E) 1 or 3
  14. Evaluate: (\sin 30^\circ)
    A) 1
    B) 1/2
    C) √3/2
    D) 0
    E) -1
  15. Evaluate: (\cos 0^\circ)
    A) 0
    B) 1
    C) -1
    D) 1/2
    E) √3/2
  16. Evaluate: (\tan 45^\circ)
    A) 0
    B) 1
    C) -1
    D) √3
    E) 1/2
  17. Find hypotenuse if opposite = 3, adjacent = 4
    A) 5
    B) 6
    C) 7
    D) 8
    E) 9
  18. Evaluate: (\sin^2 30^\circ)
    A) 1/2
    B) 1/4
    C) 3/4
    D) 1
    E) 0
  19. If (y = 2x + 3), find y when x = 2
    A) 5
    B) 6
    C) 7
    D) 8
    E) 9
  20. Solve: (3x – 6 = 0)
    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    E) 5

BIOLOGY

  1. Which blood group is the universal donor?
    A) A
    B) B
    C) AB
    D) O
    E) O⁺
  2. Blood group O is universal because it lacks:
    A) Antibodies
    B) Antigens
    C) Plasma
    D) Haemoglobin
    E) Platelets
  3. Heterodont dentition is found in:
    A) Fish
    B) Mammals
    C) Amphibians
    D) Reptiles
    E) Birds
  4. The male part of a flower is:
    A) Ovary
    B) Stamen
    C) Style
    D) Petal
    E) Sepal
  5. The last level in a food chain is:
    A) Producer
    B) Consumer
    C) Decomposer
    D) Herbivore
    E) Omnivore
  6. The nervous system consists of:
    A) Brain and spinal cord
    B) Heart and brain
    C) Nerves only
    D) Brain only
    E) Spinal cord only
  7. Tropical rainforest biome is characterized by:
    A) Low rainfall
    B) High rainfall
    C) Snow
    D) Desert
    E) Ice
  8. Molars are used for:
    A) Cutting
    B) Grinding
    C) Tearing
    D) Biting
    E) Piercing
  9. Which organism reproduces by budding?
    A) Amoeba
    B) Paramecium
    C) Hydra
    D) Euglena
    E) Bacteria
  10. Lamarck explained evolution using:
    A) Natural selection
    B) Use and disuse
    C) Mutation
    D) Isolation
    E) Adaptation
  11. A discontinuous variation is:
    A) Height
    B) Weight
    C) Blood group
    D) Size
    E) Length
  12. Camels survive in desert due to:
    A) Fat storage
    B) Thick fur
    C) Weak legs
    D) Small body
    E) Large ears
  13. Soil with best organic matter is:
    A) Sandy
    B) Loamy
    C) Clay
    D) Gravel
    E) Rocky
  14. A biotic factor is:
    A) Rainfall
    B) Temperature
    C) Predator
    D) Soil
    E) Wind
  15. An abiotic factor is:
    A) Predator
    B) Disease
    C) Rainfall
    D) Competition
    E) Parasite
  16. CNS consists of:
    A) Brain and spinal cord
    B) Brain and nerves
    C) Spinal cord and nerves
    D) Cerebrum only
    E) Cerebellum only
  17. Probability of BO × OO producing B group:
    A) 0%
    B) 25%
    C) 50%
    D) 75%
    E) 100%
  18. The eye defect caused by ageing is:
    A) Myopia
    B) Hypermetropia
    C) Presbyopia
    D) Astigmatism
    E) Blindness
  19. A dicot stem has vascular bundles:
    A) Scattered
    B) In ring
    C) In rows
    D) Random
    E) In pairs
  20. Population density refers to:
    A) Total population
    B) Number per area
    C) Birth rate
    D) Death rate
    E) Migration

CHEMISTRY

  1. The bond between atoms with large electronegativity difference is:
    A) Covalent
    B) Ionic
    C) Metallic
    D) Hydrogen
    E) Van der Waals
  2. Concentrated H₂SO₄ acts as:
    A) Oxidizing agent
    B) Reducing agent
    C) Dehydrating agent
    D) Catalyst
    E) Base
  3. General formula of alkenes is:
    A) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
    B) CₙH₂ₙ
    C) CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
    D) CₙH₂ₙ₋₄
    E) CₙHₙ
  4. Alkyl group of pentane is:
    A) Propyl
    B) Butyl
    C) Pentyl
    D) Hexyl
    E) Methyl
  5. A strong acid is:
    A) HCl
    B) CH₃COOH
    C) NH₃
    D) NaOH
    E) H₂O
  6. Hard water:
    A) Lathers easily
    B) Does not lather easily
    C) Is pure
    D) Is distilled
    E) Is clean
  7. Electrolysis of brine produces:
    A) H₂, Cl₂, NaOH
    B) CO₂
    C) O₂
    D) NaCl
    E) HCl
  8. Frasch process extracts:
    A) Iron
    B) Sulphur
    C) Copper
    D) Gold
    E) Zinc
  9. Neutralization gives:
    A) Salt and water
    B) Acid
    C) Base
    D) Gas
    E) Metal
  10. A synthesis reaction is:
    A) Decomposition
    B) Combination
    C) Replacement
    D) Exchange
    E) Reduction
  11. Hydrogen reacts with chlorine in:
    A) Darkness
    B) Sunlight
    C) Cold
    D) Vacuum
    E) Water
  12. Ester + ammonia forms:
    A) Amide
    B) Acid
    C) Alcohol
    D) Salt
    E) Water
  13. Electronegativity increases:
    A) Across period
    B) Down group
    C) Randomly
    D) In metals
    E) In gases
  14. Faraday’s constant is:
    A) 96,500 C
    B) 965 C
    C) 1.6×10⁻¹⁹
    D) 6.02×10²³
    E) 1000 C
  15. Solvent for paint is:
    A) Water
    B) Ethanol
    C) Turpentine
    D) Acetone
    E) Oil
  16. Supersaturated solution:
    A) Less solute
    B) Maximum solute
    C) More than normal
    D) No solute
    E) Equal solute
  17. Oxide soluble in base is:
    A) Acidic oxide
    B) Basic oxide
    C) Neutral oxide
    D) Amphoteric oxide
    E) Metal oxide
  18. pH of strong acid:
    A) High
    B) Low
    C) Neutral
    D) 7
    E) 14
  19. Alkali is:
    A) Acid
    B) Soluble base
    C) Salt
    D) Gas
    E) Metal
  20. Organic chemistry studies:
    A) Metals
    B) Carbon compounds
    C) Water
    D) Air
    E) Minerals

PHYSICS

  1. Total internal reflection occurs when:
    A) Angle < critical
    B) Angle > critical
    C) Light enters normally
    D) Light stops
    E) Light reflects
  2. Mercury has high surface tension due to:
    A) Weak forces
    B) Strong cohesive forces
    C) Low density
    D) High temperature
    E) Low pressure
  3. Friction increases by:
    A) Smoothing
    B) Lubrication
    C) Roughening
    D) Reducing force
    E) Polishing
  4. Instrument for pressure:
    A) Thermometer
    B) Barometer
    C) Hygrometer
    D) Ammeter
    E) Voltmeter
  5. Sound travels fastest in:
    A) Gas
    B) Liquid
    C) Solid
    D) Vacuum
    E) Air
  6. Pitch depends on:
    A) Amplitude
    B) Frequency
    C) Loudness
    D) Speed
    E) Energy
  7. Capacitance increases when:
    A) Distance increases
    B) Area decreases
    C) Distance decreases
    D) Dielectric removed
    E) Voltage increases
  8. Commercial unit of energy:
    A) Joule
    B) Watt
    C) kWh
    D) Newton
    E) Volt
  9. 1 kWh =
    A) 3.6×10⁶ J
    B) 3600 J
    C) 1000 J
    D) 1 J
    E) 10⁶ J
  10. Faraday constant is:
    A) 96,500 C
    B) 965 C
    C) 1.6×10⁻¹⁹
    D) 6.02×10²³
    E) 1000 C
  11. Lens focal length is distance to:
    A) Image
    B) Object
    C) Focal point
    D) Centre
    E) Axis
  12. Velocity is:
    A) Speed only
    B) Speed with direction
    C) Distance
    D) Time
    E) Acceleration
  13. Acceleration is:
    A) Change in velocity
    B) Speed
    C) Distance
    D) Force
    E) Energy
  14. Force =
    A) mv
    B) ma
    C) vt
    D) pt
    E) et
  15. Work =
    A) Fd
    B) Ft
    C) Et
    D) ms
    E) dt
  16. Power =
    A) W/t
    B) F/t
    C) E×t
    D) d/t
    E) m/t
  17. Density =
    A) m/v
    B) v/m
    C) mv
    D) fa
    E) pv
  18. Pressure =
    A) F/A
    B) A/F
    C) mv
    D) vt
    E) pa
  19. Satellite must have velocity:
    A) Orbital
    B) Zero
    C) Infinite
    D) Light speed
    E) Negative
  20. Component of weight on slope depends on:
    A) mg sinθ
    B) mg cosθ
    C) mg tanθ
    D) mg
    E) θ

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

  1. A narrative poem that tells a story is called:
    A) Ode
    B) Ballad
    C) Sonnet
    D) Elegy
    E) Epic
  2. Giving human qualities to non-living things is:
    A) Simile
    B) Metaphor
    C) Personification
    D) Irony
    E) Hyperbole
  3. The main idea of a literary work is:
    A) Plot
    B) Theme
    C) Setting
    D) Tone
    E) Style
  4. A comparison using “like” or “as” is:
    A) Metaphor
    B) Simile
    C) Irony
    D) Hyperbole
    E) Pun
  5. Sequence of events is:
    A) Theme
    B) Plot
    C) Character
    D) Style
    E) Tone
  6. A short humorous poem is:
    A) Ode
    B) Sonnet
    C) Limerick
    D) Elegy
    E) Ballad
  7. A tragedy is a play that:
    A) Ends happily
    B) Ends sadly
    C) Is humorous
    D) Is poetic
    E) Is brief
  8. The central character is:
    A) Antagonist
    B) Protagonist
    C) Narrator
    D) Villain
    E) Minor character
  9. A 14-line poem is:
    A) Ode
    B) Sonnet
    C) Ballad
    D) Epic
    E) Elegy
  10. Opposite of protagonist is:
    A) Hero
    B) Villain
    C) Antagonist
    D) Narrator
    E) Minor
  11. A poem of mourning is:
    A) Ode
    B) Elegy
    C) Sonnet
    D) Ballad
    E) Epic
  12. Exaggeration is:
    A) Irony
    B) Hyperbole
    C) Simile
    D) Metaphor
    E) Pun
  13. Long heroic poem is:
    A) Epic
    B) Ode
    C) Ballad
    D) Limerick
    E) Elegy
  14. Author’s attitude is:
    A) Mood
    B) Tone
    C) Theme
    D) Plot
    E) Style
  15. Time and place is:
    A) Theme
    B) Setting
    C) Plot
    D) Style
    E) Tone
  16. Opposing character is:
    A) Hero
    B) Narrator
    C) Antagonist
    D) Minor
    E) Static
  17. Four-line stanza is:
    A) Triplet
    B) Couplet
    C) Quatrain
    D) Octave
    E) Verse
  18. Work performed on stage is:
    A) Novel
    B) Drama
    C) Poetry
    D) Prose
    E) Essay
  19. Repetition of consonant sounds is:
    A) Assonance
    B) Alliteration
    C) Consonance
    D) Rhyme
    E) Rhythm
  20. Emotional feeling created is:
    A) Tone
    B) Mood
    C) Theme
    D) Plot
    E) Style

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES (CRS)

  1. The division of Israel under Rehoboam was due to:
    A) Rejection of elders’ advice
    B) War
    C) Religion
    D) Trade
    E) Economy
  2. The elders advised Rehoboam to:
    A) Increase burden
    B) Serve the people
    C) Fight war
    D) Tax more
    E) Rule harshly
  3. God opposes:
    A) Love
    B) Pride
    C) Faith
    D) Hope
    E) Peace
  4. Abraham is known for:
    A) War
    B) Faith
    C) Trade
    D) Law
    E) Politics
  5. Jesus resurrected on the:
    A) First day
    B) Second day
    C) Third day
    D) Fourth day
    E) Fifth day
  6. Jonah was swallowed by:
    A) Lion
    B) Fish
    C) Whale
    D) Shark
    E) Crocodile
  7. Justification is:
    A) By works
    B) By faith
    C) By law
    D) By sacrifice
    E) By ritual
  8. Jacob laid his head at:
    A) Bethel
    B) Jerusalem
    C) Jericho
    D) Nazareth
    E) Egypt
  9. Philip’s profession was:
    A) Fisherman
    B) Farmer
    C) Trader
    D) Soldier
    E) Priest
  10. Paul taught that salvation is:
    A) Earned
    B) Gift
    C) Bought
    D) Forced
    E) Sold
  11. Love is described in:
    A) Romans
    B) Corinthians
    C) Acts
    D) Matthew
    E) Mark
  12. Unity in Christ means:
    A) Division
    B) Oneness
    C) Conflict
    D) War
    E) Pride
  13. New life in Christ means:
    A) Old life
    B) Transformation
    C) Death
    D) Sin
    E) Law
  14. The greatest virtue is:
    A) Faith
    B) Hope
    C) Love
    D) Peace
    E) Joy
  15. Sin leads to:
    A) Life
    B) Death
    C) Joy
    D) Peace
    E) Hope
  16. Prayer is:
    A) Talking to God
    B) Singing
    C) Reading
    D) Writing
    E) Listening
  17. Resurrection shows:
    A) Defeat
    B) Victory
    C) Weakness
    D) Fear
    E) Sin
  18. Grace means:
    A) Punishment
    B) Favor
    C) Law
    D) Work
    E) Effort
  19. Faith means:
    A) Doubt
    B) Trust
    C) Fear
    D) Weakness
    E) Sin
  20. The church is:
    A) Building
    B) Body of believers
    C) House
    D) School
    E) Temple

Questions That Came Out on Saturday, 18th April 2026.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

  1. Choose the word nearest in meaning to “vague.”
    A) Clear
    B) Uncertain
    C) Precise
    D) Accurate
    E) Obvious
  2. Choose the word nearest in meaning to “empathetic.”
    A) Sympathetic
    B) Angry
    C) Proud
    D) Careless
    E) Indifferent
  3. Choose the antonym of “use.”
    A) Apply
    B) Employ
    C) Waste
    D) Utilize
    E) Handle
  4. Identify the correct stress pattern of the word “liquidity.”
    A) LI-qui-di-ty
    B) li-QUI-di-ty
    C) li-qui-DI-ty
    D) li-qui-di-TY
    E) LI-QUI-di-ty
  5. In The Lekki Headmaster, how many ambulances did Sola say came when her child was sick?
    A) One
    B) Two
    C) Three
    D) Four
    E) Five
  6. The expression “bosom of sleep” is an example of:
    A) Simile
    B) Metaphor
    C) Personification
    D) Hyperbole
    E) Irony
  7. Why did Bepo renew his passport?
    A) For vacation
    B) For official travel abroad
    C) For business only
    D) For schooling
    E) For medical treatment
  8. Choose the antonym of “vague.”
    A) Unclear
    B) Precise
    C) Doubtful
    D) Confusing
    E) Weak
  9. Choose the synonym of “empathetic.”
    A) Compassionate
    B) Wicked
    C) Harsh
    D) Cold
    E) Cruel
  10. Choose the correct spelling:
    A) Liqudity
    B) Liquidity
    C) Liquadity
    D) Liqudity
    E) Liquidty
  11. Choose the correct interpretation of:
    “She is in the bosom of her family.”
    A) She is far from home
    B) She is safe and protected
    C) She is angry
    D) She is alone
    E) She is weak
  12. Identify the word with a different stress pattern:
    A) Economy
    B) Democracy
    C) Photography
    D) Liquidity
    E) Geography
  13. Choose the synonym of “careless.”
    A) Reckless
    B) Careful
    C) Neat
    D) Orderly
    E) Accurate
  14. Choose the antonym of “strong.”
    A) Weak
    B) Tough
    C) Powerful
    D) Firm
    E) Solid
  15. Which word rhymes with “day”?
    A) Play
    B) Pit
    C) Pet
    D) Put
    E) Pat
  16. Choose the correct option:
    He insisted that she _____ the truth.
    A) tells
    B) tell
    C) told
    D) telling
    E) has told
  17. Choose the correct interpretation of the idiom: “break the ice.”
    A) Destroy something
    B) Start a conversation
    C) End a meeting
    D) Cause trouble
    E) Feel cold
  18. Choose the antonym of “increase.”
    A) Rise
    B) Grow
    C) Reduce
    D) Expand
    E) Multiply
  19. Choose the synonym of “quick.”
    A) Slow
    B) Fast
    C) Weak
    D) Calm
    E) Lazy
  20. The tone of a passage refers to the writer’s:
    A) Attitude
    B) Style
    C) Grammar
    D) Vocabulary
    E) Plot

MATHEMATICS

  1. Find the area of a rhombus with diagonals 8 cm and 6 cm.
    A) 24 cm²
    B) 48 cm²
    C) 12 cm²
    D) 36 cm²
    E) 30 cm²
  2. Find the perimeter of a sector of radius 10 cm and angle 120°. (π = 3.142)
    A) 40.94 cm
    B) 30.94 cm
    C) 50.94 cm
    D) 60.94 cm
    E) 20.94 cm
  3. Find the standard deviation of 5.1, 6.1, 7.3
    A) 0.9
    B) 1.0
    C) 0.8
    D) 1.2
    E) 0.7
  4. Simplify: (2^3 \times 2^2)
    A) 2⁵
    B) 2⁶
    C) 2⁴
    D) 2³
    E) 2⁷
  5. Evaluate: (3^{-1})
    A) 3
    B) 1/3
    C) -3
    D) 9
    E) -1
  6. Simplify: (\sqrt{16})
    A) 2
    B) 4
    C) 8
    D) 16
    E) 6
  7. Rationalize: (\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}})
    A) √5/5
    B) 5√5
    C) √5
    D) 1/5
    E) 5
  8. Find the mean of 2, 4, 6
    A) 3
    B) 4
    C) 5
    D) 6
    E) 2
  9. Solve: (x + 5 = 9)
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    E) 6
  10. Solve: (2x = 8)
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    E) 6
  11. If (x^2 = 9), find x
    A) 3
    B) -3
    C) ±3
    D) 9
    E) -9
  12. Solve: (x^2 – 4x + 3 = 0)
    A) 1 or 3
    B) 2 or 4
    C) 3 or 4
    D) 1 or 2
    E) 2 or 3
  13. Evaluate: (\sin 30^\circ)
    A) 1
    B) 1/2
    C) √3/2
    D) 0
    E) -1
  14. Evaluate: (\cos 60^\circ)
    A) 1
    B) 1/2
    C) 0
    D) √3/2
    E) -1
  15. Evaluate: (\tan 45^\circ)
    A) 0
    B) 1
    C) -1
    D) √3
    E) 1/2
  16. Find hypotenuse if sides are 5 and 12
    A) 13
    B) 15
    C) 17
    D) 10
    E) 12
  17. If y = 3x + 2, find y when x = 2
    A) 6
    B) 7
    C) 8
    D) 9
    E) 10
  18. Solve: (3x – 3 = 0)
    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    E) 5
  19. Evaluate: (\sqrt{25} + \sqrt{9})
    A) 8
    B) 7
    C) 6
    D) 5
    E) 9
  20. Simplify: (5^2)
    A) 10
    B) 20
    C) 25
    D) 30
    E) 15

ECONOMICS

  1. Income not spent on consumption is called:
    A) Injection
    B) Savings
    C) Withdrawal
    D) Investment
    E) Tax
  2. A key feature of monopolistic competition is:
    A) One seller
    B) Two sellers
    C) Many sellers with product differentiation
    D) No seller
    E) Government control
  3. The purchasing power of money is known as:
    A) Quantity of money
    B) Supply of money
    C) Value of money
    D) Demand for money
    E) Inflation rate
  4. When total revenue equals total cost, the firm earns:
    A) Loss
    B) Supernormal profit
    C) Normal profit
    D) Zero revenue
    E) Marginal profit
  5. A primary function of money is:
    A) Medium of exchange
    B) Hoarding
    C) Saving only
    D) Borrowing
    E) Lending
  6. Water bodies are classified under:
    A) Land
    B) Labour
    C) Capital
    D) Enterprise
    E) Market
  7. Malthusian theory states that population grows:
    A) Geometrically
    B) Arithmetically
    C) Slowly
    D) Randomly
    E) Constantly
  8. Minimum number of members in a public company is:
    A) Two
    B) Five
    C) Seven
    D) Ten
    E) Fifty
  9. An advantage of a sole trader is:
    A) Unlimited liability
    B) Slow decision
    C) Quick decision making
    D) Government control
    E) Large capital
  10. A country benefits from trade when it:
    A) Produces all goods
    B) Specializes in comparative advantage
    C) Stops import
    D) Increases tariffs
    E) Avoids export
  11. Unemployment due to skill mismatch is:
    A) Structural
    B) Frictional
    C) Cyclical
    D) Seasonal
    E) Hidden
  12. Inflation means:
    A) Fall in prices
    B) Rise in prices
    C) Stable prices
    D) No change
    E) High wages
  13. Deflation means:
    A) Rise in prices
    B) Fall in prices
    C) No change
    D) Increase demand
    E) Increase supply
  14. Demand law states:
    A) Price ↑ demand ↑
    B) Price ↓ demand ↑
    C) Price constant
    D) Demand constant
    E) Supply constant
  15. Supply law states:
    A) Price ↑ supply ↑
    B) Price ↓ supply ↑
    C) Supply constant
    D) Demand constant
    E) Price constant
  16. Opportunity cost is:
    A) Money spent
    B) Next best alternative
    C) Total cost
    D) Fixed cost
    E) Variable cost
  17. Capital refers to:
    A) Money only
    B) Tools and machinery
    C) Labour
    D) Land
    E) Market
  18. Labour is:
    A) Human effort
    B) Machines
    C) Land
    D) Money
    E) Tools
  19. Market is:
    A) Place only
    B) Interaction of buyers and sellers
    C) Shop
    D) Building
    E) Bank
  20. Utility means:
    A) Satisfaction
    B) Cost
    C) Price
    D) Demand
    E) Supply

GOVERNMENT

  1. Structural Adjustment Programme (SAP) in Nigeria was introduced by:
    A) Buhari
    B) Babangida
    C) Obasanjo
    D) Shagari
    E) Jonathan
  2. Murtala Mohammed created how many states?
    A) 12
    B) 19
    C) 21
    D) 30
    E) 36
  3. NCBWA was founded in:
    A) 1910
    B) 1920
    C) 1930
    D) 1940
    E) 1950
  4. The headquarters of FAO is in:
    A) Paris
    B) New York
    C) Washington DC
    D) Rome
    E) London
  5. Ombudsman represents:
    A) Government
    B) Citizens
    C) Judiciary
    D) Military
    E) Legislature
  6. Igbo pre-colonial system was:
    A) Centralized
    B) Acephalous
    C) Monarchical
    D) Federal
    E) Military
  7. Hausa emirate was divided into:
    A) Districts
    B) Provinces
    C) Villages
    D) Regions
    E) Zones
  8. Public opinion is:
    A) Government policy
    B) People’s views
    C) Law
    D) Constitution
    E) Election
  9. Pressure groups aim to:
    A) Rule
    B) Influence policy
    C) Fight war
    D) Govern
    E) Tax
  10. Political party is:
    A) Social group
    B) Group seeking power
    C) Club
    D) Market
    E) Union
  11. 1963 constitution made Nigeria:
    A) Colony
    B) Republic
    C) Military state
    D) Monarchy
    E) Protectorate
  12. Rule of law was propounded by:
    A) Dicey
    B) Marx
    C) Locke
    D) Hobbes
    E) Rousseau
  13. Communism founder:
    A) Marx
    B) Locke
    C) Smith
    D) Keynes
    E) Plato
  14. ECOWAS has how many members?
    A) 10
    B) 12
    C) 15
    D) 20
    E) 25
  15. Colonialism means:
    A) Independence
    B) Foreign rule
    C) Democracy
    D) Federalism
    E) Republic
  16. Election is:
    A) Appointment
    B) Voting process
    C) Selection by king
    D) War
    E) Law
  17. Legislature makes:
    A) Laws
    B) Judgement
    C) Policies
    D) War
    E) Budget
  18. Executive implements:
    A) Laws
    B) Judgement
    C) Policies
    D) Budget
    E) Elections
  19. Judiciary interprets:
    A) Laws
    B) Budget
    C) Policy
    D) Election
    E) Trade
  20. Democracy means:
    A) Rule by one
    B) Rule by people
    C) Rule by army
    D) Rule by king
    E) Rule by elite

BIOLOGY

  1. Warning coloration in wasps serves for:
    A) Camouflage
    B) Protection
    C) Attraction
    D) Feeding
    E) Movement
  2. Fossils provide evidence of:
    A) Age of past life
    B) Weather
    C) Climate
    D) Soil
    E) Water
  3. Use and disuse theory was proposed by:
    A) Darwin
    B) Lamarck
    C) Mendel
    D) Pasteur
    E) Hooke
  4. Probability of BO × OO producing B group:
    A) 25%
    B) 50%
    C) 75%
    D) 100%
    E) 0%
  5. Discontinuous variation example:
    A) Height
    B) Weight
    C) Blood group
    D) Size
    E) Length
  6. Transmission of traits is:
    A) Genetics
    B) Heredity
    C) Variation
    D) Evolution
    E) Mutation
  7. Respiration through skin and lungs occurs in:
    A) Fish
    B) Toad
    C) Bird
    D) Lizard
    E) Snake
  8. Longest bone is:
    A) Femur
    B) Tibia
    C) Humerus
    D) Radius
    E) Ulna
  9. Universal donor is:
    A) A
    B) B
    C) AB
    D) O
    E) O⁺
  10. Universal recipient is:
    A) A
    B) B
    C) AB
    D) O
    E) O⁻
  11. Genetic means:
    A) Inherited
    B) Acquired
    C) Learned
    D) Developed
    E) Changed
  12. Denitrifying bacteria:
    A) Add nitrogen
    B) Remove nitrogen
    C) Fix nitrogen
    D) Store nitrogen
    E) Absorb nitrogen
  13. Mangrove swamp is:
    A) Desert
    B) Forest
    C) Coastal biome
    D) Grassland
    E) Tundra
  14. Xylem transports:
    A) Water
    B) Food
    C) Air
    D) Sugar
    E) Minerals
  15. Fungi reproduce by:
    A) Budding
    B) Spores
    C) Division
    D) Seeds
    E) Eggs
  16. Ear defect causes:
    A) Deafness
    B) Blindness
    C) Weakness
    D) Paralysis
    E) Fever
  17. Ecology studies:
    A) Cells
    B) Environment
    C) Organs
    D) Tissue
    E) Molecules
  18. Evolution means:
    A) Change over time
    B) Growth
    C) Movement
    D) Feeding
    E) Breathing
  19. Blood group AB has:
    A) No antigen
    B) Both antigens
    C) One antigen
    D) No antibodies
    E) Both antibodies
  20. Population density is:
    A) Total number
    B) Number per area
    C) Birth rate
    D) Death rate
    E) Migration

CHEMISTRY

  1. Concentration of iron ore is done by:
    A) Roasting
    B) Calcination
    C) Froth flotation
    D) Smelting
    E) Distillation
  2. Wrought iron is:
    A) Alloy
    B) Purest iron
    C) Impure iron
    D) Steel
    E) Cast iron
  3. Ester + water forms:
    A) Alcohol and acid
    B) Salt
    C) Base
    D) Gas
    E) Metal
  4. CH₃CONH₂ is:
    A) Ethanamide
    B) Methanamide
    C) Propanamide
    D) Butanamide
    E) Acetamide
  5. Third homologue of alkanoic acid is:
    A) Methanoic
    B) Ethanoic
    C) Propanoic
    D) Butanoic
    E) Pentanoic
  6. Sulphur (VI) oxide is:
    A) SO₂
    B) SO₃
    C) SO
    D) S₂O
    E) S₃O
  7. Glucose + galactose form:
    A) Lactose
    B) Sucrose
    C) Maltose
    D) Fructose
    E) Cellulose
  8. Water gas is:
    A) CO + H₂
    B) CO₂
    C) H₂O
    D) O₂
    E) CH₄
  9. Empirical formula of C₂H₂ is:
    A) CH
    B) C₂H₂
    C) CH₂
    D) C₂H
    E) C₄H₄
  10. Graham’s law relates to:
    A) Diffusion
    B) Reaction
    C) Heat
    D) Light
    E) Pressure
  11. Electrolysis produces:
    A) Gas
    B) Liquid
    C) Solid
    D) Plasma
    E) Compound
  12. Redox involves:
    A) Reduction only
    B) Oxidation only
    C) Both
    D) None
    E) Neutralization
  13. Covalent bond involves:
    A) Sharing electrons
    B) Transfer
    C) Loss
    D) Gain
    E) Donation
  14. Removal of temporary hardness:
    A) Boiling
    B) Cooling
    C) Filtering
    D) Freezing
    E) Mixing
  15. Emulsion is:
    A) Solid in liquid
    B) Liquid in liquid
    C) Gas in liquid
    D) Solid in gas
    E) Gas in solid
  16. Air pollutant is:
    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon monoxide
    D) Hydrogen
    E) Helium
  17. Alkane general formula:
    A) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
    B) CₙH₂ₙ
    C) CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
    D) CₙH₂ₙ₋₄
    E) CₙHₙ
  18. Silver does not form:
    A) Oxide
    B) Hydroxide
    C) Salt
    D) Acid
    E) Base
  19. Avogadro’s law states:
    A) Equal volumes contain equal molecules
    B) Pressure increases
    C) Volume decreases
    D) Temperature constant
    E) Gas expands
  20. Pressure law states:
    A) P ∝ T
    B) P ∝ V
    C) P constant
    D) T constant
    E) V constant

PHYSICS

  1. Temperature where °C = °F is:
    A) -40
    B) 0
    C) 32
    D) 100
    E) -20
  2. Optical instrument for dentist is:
    A) Convex mirror
    B) Concave mirror
    C) Plane mirror
    D) Lens
    E) Prism
  3. Current in circuit (E=10V, R=20Ω):
    A) 0.5A
    B) 1A
    C) 2A
    D) 5A
    E) 10A
  4. Density formula:
    A) m/v
    B) v/m
    C) mv
    D) vt
    E) pt
  5. Ice melting increases volume because:
    A) Density decreases
    B) Density increases
    C) Mass increases
    D) Pressure increases
    E) Temperature decreases
  6. Velocity =
    A) fλ
    B) λ/f
    C) f/λ
    D) ft
    E) vt
  7. Wave velocity (f=400Hz, λ=0.2m):
    A) 80 m/s
    B) 100 m/s
    C) 200 m/s
    D) 50 m/s
    E) 400 m/s
  8. Unit of power is:
    A) Watt
    B) Joule
    C) Newton
    D) Volt
    E) Watt/sec
  9. Latent heat of fusion is:
    A) Solid to liquid
    B) Liquid to gas
    C) Gas to liquid
    D) Solid to gas
    E) Gas to solid
  10. Metre rule accuracy depends on:
    A) Least count
    B) Length
    C) Weight
    D) Shape
    E) Color
  11. Gravitational force depends on:
    A) Mass
    B) Distance
    C) Both
    D) None
    E) Speed
  12. Equilibrium occurs when:
    A) Forces balance
    B) Forces unequal
    C) Motion increases
    D) Speed zero
    E) Acceleration zero
  13. Capacitor stores:
    A) Charge
    B) Energy
    C) Power
    D) Heat
    E) Light
  14. Inductor stores:
    A) Electric energy
    B) Magnetic energy
    C) Heat
    D) Light
    E) Charge
  15. Gold leaf electroscope detects:
    A) Charge
    B) Heat
    C) Light
    D) Pressure
    E) Force
  16. P-N junction is used in:
    A) Diode
    B) Resistor
    C) Capacitor
    D) Inductor
    E) Battery
  17. Mechanical wave needs:
    A) Medium
    B) Vacuum
    C) Space
    D) Light
    E) Air only
  18. Resistance depends on:
    A) Temperature
    B) Length
    C) Area
    D) All
    E) None
  19. Magnetic force:
    A) qvBsinθ
    B) mv
    C) F=ma
    D) W=Fd
    E) P=VI
  20. Internal resistance reduces:
    A) Current
    B) Voltage
    C) Power
    D) Energy
    E) Speed

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