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Live Questions That Came Out in 2025 JAMB Exam (UPDATED)

By • April 30, 2025 • JAMB Updates

Live JAMB Questions That Came Out During the 2025 UTME (Refresh Your Memory)

The 2025 UTME is currently ongoing, and most students who have written the exam are already waiting for their results.

Here at Allschool, we wish them the best. For those who are yet to write their exam, we believe it would be helpful to take a look at some of the questions that came out in the current 2025 CBT Examination.

We will also highlight the exact topics that appeared. We advise you to use this opportunity to refresh your memory—and if possible, re-read the topics listed. This will boost your preparation.

Page Contents

Questions That Came Out on Monday , 28th April 2025

PHYSICS (20 Questions)

  1. A ray of light has a glancing angle of 60° on a plane mirror. What is the angle of deviation of the ray?
  2. Shadow can only be formed when light is blocked by which kind of object?
  3. How much energy can be stored in an inductor of inductance 16H carrying a current of 4A?
  4. The beat frequency of two waves with frequencies 358 Hz and 362 Hz is
  5. A bimetallic strip made of steel and copper of length 25 cm breaks contact at 40°C. Calculate the displacement from the contact point.
  6. A body weighs 50N in air and 39.2N in a liquid of relative density 0.9. What is its weight in water?
  7. What amount of heat energy can raise the temperature of 500g of water and a 2kg copper calorimeter from 5°C to 45°C?
  8. Calculate the pressure exerted by a force of 200N on an area of 4m².
  9. What is the work done when a force of 10N moves an object through 5m?
  10. Which quantity is conserved when two bodies collide elastically?
  11. What is the SI unit of power?
  12. A spring with a force constant of 200 N/m is compressed by 0.1m. Find the potential energy stored.
  13. The acceleration of free fall on Jupiter is approximately 24.79 m/s². What is the weight of a 10kg mass on Jupiter?
  14. What device is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
  15. Which law explains why ships float in water?
  16. If the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection, which law is obeyed?
  17. The primary colors of light are
  18. What is the principle behind a hydraulic press?
  19. A battery produces 12V across its terminals when supplying a current of 2A. What is its power output?
  20. Which physical quantity has unit kg·m/s?

CHEMISTRY (20 Questions)

  1. The species that releases electrons in a reaction is called
  2. A pair of colors that are complementary is
  3. A mass of oxygen that exerts a pressure of 4 atm at 180K in 5.4dm³ is
  4. Nitrogen gas is produced industrially from liquefied air by
  5. In the lab preparation of ethyne, impurities are removed by
  6. The functional pOH of 0.25 mol/dm³ HCl solution is
  7. Zinc sulfide is used in the petroleum industry to
  8. The alkyl group corresponding to propane is
  9. Element X in Group 2 forms a compound with element Y in Group 4 through electron transfer. What is the formula?
  10. Alloys that contain manganese include
  11. Which gas turns limewater milky?
  12. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄?
  13. An example of a neutral oxide is
  14. Which acid is called the “king of chemicals”?
  15. What is the IUPAC name for CH₄?
  16. What is the molar mass of NaOH?
  17. The pH of pure water at 25°C is
  18. Which process separates mixtures based on boiling points?
  19. Which element is common to all organic compounds?
  20. What is the general formula of alkanes?

BIOLOGY

  1. The buoyancy of fish can be attributed to the
  2. Montane forest is located in
  3. Magnesium has a smaller atomic radius than calcium because
  4. If the temperatures of the wet and dry bulbs are the same, the relative humidity is
  5. What is the powerhouse of the cell?
  6. Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
  7. The basic unit of life is the
  8. Photosynthesis occurs in which organelle?
  9. The green pigment in plants is called
  10. An example of a heterotroph is
  11. Which part of the brain controls balance?
  12. Which blood component is responsible for clotting?
  13. What is the function of the xylem in plants?
  14. Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?
  15. Which group of vertebrates lay eggs and have scales?
  16. What type of reproduction produces offspring genetically identical to the parent?
  17. An example of a mammal that lays eggs is
  18. What type of joint is found in the shoulder?
  19. What is the largest organ in the human body?
  20. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called

PHYSICS

  1. Water moves up a plant because of
    A. Surface tension
    B. Capillarity
    C. Adhesion
    D. Osmosis
  2. If the acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is 1/6 of that on Earth, what will the mass of a ball be on Earth?
    A. Equal
    B. 6 times its mass on Earth
    C. 1/6 of its mass on Earth
    D. 36 times its weight on Earth
  3. If the capacitance is 2F, what is the capacitance when the dielectric constant is doubled?
    A. 4F
    B. 6F
    C. 16F
    D. 2F
  4. Calculate the final temperature of 1kg of a substance taken from 100°C of steam, and heat of 2.36×10⁶ J.
    Latent heat of fusion = 2.3×10⁶ J/kg, Specific heat capacity = 4200 J/kg°C.
    A. 90°C
    B. 95°C
    C. 94°C
    D. 100°C
  5. Which of the following represents Einstein’s mass-energy relation?
    A. E = mv²
    B. E = mc²
    C. E = ½mv²
    D. E = mc
  6. In the diagram of a beam balance, 50N is placed 3m from the pivot to the left, and 80N is placed 4m from the pivot to the right.
    What are the moments about point O?
    A. 150 Nm and 320 Nm
    B. 160 Nm and 300 Nm
    C. 120 Nm and 340 Nm
    D. 140 Nm and 320 Nm
  7. Which instrument is used to measure potential difference?
    A. Ammeter
    B. Voltmeter
    C. Galvanometer
    D. Hygrometer
  8. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
    A. Speed
    B. Distance
    C. Displacement
    D. Energy
  9. A boy pushes a wall with a force of 50N but the wall does not move. What is the work done?
    A. 50J
    B. 0J
    C. 25J
    D. 5J
  10. Which law states that the extension of a spring is proportional to the force applied?
    A. Pascal’s Law
    B. Hooke’s Law
    C. Boyle’s Law
    D. Newton’s First Law
  11. What type of mirror is used in car rear-view mirrors?
    A. Convex mirror
    B. Concave mirror
    C. Plane mirror
    D. Parabolic mirror
  12. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives
    A. Speed
    B. Displacement
    C. Acceleration
    D. Distance
  13. An object floats on water if
    A. Its density is greater than water
    B. Its density is less than water
    C. Its mass is equal to its volume
    D. Its pressure is greater than that of water
  14. What is the SI unit of pressure?
    A. Newton
    B. Pascal
    C. Joule
    D. Watt
  15. The device used to change the voltage of an alternating current is called
    A. Motor
    B. Generator
    C. Transformer
    D. Capacitor
  16. What happens to the resistance of a conductor when its temperature increases?
    A. It decreases
    B. It remains the same
    C. It increases
    D. It becomes zero
  17. The ability of a material to return to its original shape after deformation is known as
    A. Plasticity
    B. Elasticity
    C. Viscosity
    D. Density
  18. Sound waves are examples of
    A. Transverse waves
    B. Longitudinal waves
    C. Electromagnetic waves
    D. Mechanical waves
  19. A body is said to be in equilibrium when
    A. The net force acting on it is zero
    B. It is moving with uniform speed
    C. It is at rest only
    D. It is rotating at constant speed
  20. A radioactive material emits alpha particles. Which of the following describes an alpha particle?
    A. 2 protons and 2 electrons
    B. 2 protons and 2 neutrons
    C. 2 neutrons and 2 electrons
    D. 1 proton and 1 neutron

Questions That Came Out on Saturday , 26th April 2025

CHEMISTRY

  1. KOH + (NH₄)₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2H₂O + 2NH₃
    The equation above represents an illustration of the reaction of
    A. Metal
    B. An acid
    C. Salt
    D. Alkali
  2. In Solvay process, the waste product is
    A. Calcium chloride
    B. Ammonium chloride
    C. Limestone
    D. Brine
  3. A thermodynamically feasible reaction with a negative standard free energy is
    A. Non-spontaneous
    B. Spontaneous
    C. Exothermic
    D. Endothermic
  4. The oxidation number of M in M₂O₄²⁻ is
    A. +3
    B. +2
    C. +4
    D. +6
  5. Identify a non-pollutant from the following:
    A. Particulate
    B. N₂
    C. CO
    D. SO₂
  6. In dry or Leclanché cell, carbon rod serves as the
    A. Molten rod
    B. Anode
    C. Electrolyte
    D. Cathode
  7. The percentage composition of copper in brass is
    A. 40–60%
    B. 20–40%
    C. 60–80%
    D. 50–70%
  8. The ion that causes permanent hardness in water is
    A. K⁺
    B. Fe²⁺
    C. Mg²⁺
    D. Cu²⁺
  9. The atomic number of protium is equal to its mass number because it
    A. Has a high mass-to-charge ratio
    B. Has a single valence electron
    C. Does not contain neutron
    D. Is an isotopic element
  10. A typical example of an aromatic hydrocarbon is
    A. Hexene
    B. Phenol
    C. Cyclohexane
    D. Toluene
  11. The product of decarboxylation of ethanoic acid is
    A. Ethane
    B. Ethene
    C. Methanol
    D. Methane
  12. The compound that exhibits geometric isomerism is
    A. C₄H₈
    B. C₄H₆
    C. C₄H₉OH
    D. C₄H₁₀
  13. A low-melting solid that readily dissolves in diethyl ether will
    A. Conduct electric current in molten state
    B. Dissolve in water
    C. Contain strong electrostatic forces of attraction
    D. Contain weak Van der Waals forces
  14. The constituent of air that acts as a diluent is
    A. Oxygen
    B. Water vapour
    C. Noble gas
    D. Nitrogen
  15. The value of x in CₓH₂₂ of an alkane is
    A. 11
    B. 10
    C. 9
    D. 12
  16. The value of x in CₓH₁₈ of an alkane is
    A. 6
    B. 9
    C. 7
    D. 8
  17. An example of an insoluble salt is
    A. NaCl
    B. ZnCl₂
    C. AgCl
    D. KCl
  18. A reaction that produces AgCl and NaNO₃ is used to prepare
    A. Complex salt
    B. Double salt
    C. Insoluble salt
    D. Soluble salt
  19. Trioxonitrate(V) salts are produced by the action of the acid on
    A. Tetraoxosulphate(VI)
    B. Trioxocarbonate(IV)
    C. Non-metals
    D. Metals
  20. A sample gave a brick-red precipitate with Fehling’s solution. It is
    A. Alkyne
    B. Aldehyde
    C. Alkane
    D. Alkanol
  21. The mass of one Avogadro’s number of Helium atoms is
    A. 4 g
    B. 6.02 × 10²³ g
    C. 1.2 × 10²³ g
    D. 2 g
  22. The solubility of 2.6 g of a 106 g solute in 500 cm³ of water at 50°C is
    A. 0.5 mol/dm³
    B. 0.05 mol/dm³
    C. 5 mol/dm³
    D. 5.5 mol/dm³
  23. Hydrogen is used to convert crude oil to
    A. Petrol
    B. Kerosene
    C. Ammoniacal liquor
    D. Coal tar
  24. Butan-2-ol and an alkane have the same molecular formula but butan-2-ol has a higher boiling point. Why?
    A. Presence of ionic bond
    B. Presence of hydrogen bond
    C. Presence of covalent bond
    D. Absence of bond
  25. When the free energy is negative, the reaction is
    A. Spontaneous
    B. Non-spontaneous
    C. Endothermic
    D. Exothermic
  26. When the trioxonitrate(V) of potassium decomposes, it gives
    A. KNO₃
    B. KNO₂
    C. NO₂
    D. K
  27. 2Al + 6H⁺ → 2Al³⁺ + 3H₂
    What is the mole of electrons transferred from aluminium to hydrogen?
    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 6
    D. 5
  28. What is the oxidation number of N in its hydride?
    A. +2
    B. +3
    C. -2
    D. -3
  29. Which of these is a hydroxide?
    A. N₂O₂
    B. KNO₂
    C. NaOH
    D. SO₂
  30. Which property of a chemical reaction does a catalyst affect?
    A. Temperature
    B. Rate of reaction
    C. Activation energy
    D. Concentration
  31. H₂O₂ → H₂ + O₂
    What effect will MnO₂ have on the reaction?
    A. Increase the temperature
    B. Lower the activation energy
    C. Raise the activation energy
    D. Destabilize the reaction
  32. Steel consists mainly of
    A. Chromium and Nickel
    B. Iron and Carbon
    C. Nickel and Carbon
    D. Iron and Zinc
  33. What is the percentage composition of copper in Brass?
    A. 60–80%
    B. 20–40%
    C. 40–60%
    D. 50–70%
  34. In a dry Leclanché cell, carbon is used as the
    A. Anode
    B. Cathode
    C. Depolarizer
    D. Electrolyte
  35. A common aromatic compound is
    A. Hexene
    B. Cyclohexane
    C. Benzene
    D. Toluene
  36. The solubility of a gas depends on
    A. Temperature and pressure
    B. Temperature and concentration
    C. Pressure and concentration
    D. Pressure and temperature

ECONOMICS

  1. The transformation of raw materials into finished goods is known as:
    A) Primary Production
    B) Tertiary Production
    C) Secondary Production
    D) Primary Consumer
  2. Collective ownership of the means of production refers to:
    A) Capitalism
    B) Privatization
    C) Communism
    D) Nationalization
  3. Given the cost function:
    C = Q²/5 + 6Q + 10
    Find the variable cost.
    A) Q/5
    B) 6Q/10
    C) Q + 6Q² + 10
    D) Q²/5 + 6Q
  4. The law of demand states that as the price increases:
    A) Supply increases
    B) Quantity supplied decreases
    C) Quantity demanded increases
    D) Quantity demanded decreases
  1. The reward for capital in production is:
    A) Rent
    B) Profit
    C) Interest
    D) Wages
  2. A market where there is only one seller is known as:
    A) Monopoly
    B) Monopsony
    C) Oligopoly
    D) Perfect Competition
  3. Which of the following is an example of a direct tax?
    A) Value Added Tax
    B) Customs duty
    C) Personal income tax
    D) Excise duty
  4. The basic economic problem is:
    A) Inflation
    B) Scarcity
    C) Money
    D) Poverty
  5. Demand is said to be elastic when:
    A) A change in price leads to a smaller change in quantity demanded
    B) A change in price leads to a larger change in quantity demanded
    C) Price remains constant despite changes in quantity
    D) Demand does not respond to changes in income
  6. In a free market economy, prices are determined by:
    A) The government
    B) Producers alone
    C) Consumers alone
    D) The forces of demand and supply
  7. Which of these is a characteristic of money?
    A) Instability
    B) Double coincidence of wants
    C) Acceptability
    D) Expiration
  8. The supply of agricultural products is mostly:
    A) Elastic
    B) Perfectly elastic
    C) Inelastic
    D) Unitary elastic
  9. Opportunity cost is best described as:
    A) The amount spent on production
    B) The next best alternative foregone
    C) The total cost of production
    D) The price of a good
  10. Which of the following is NOT a factor of production?
    A) Land
    B) Labour
    C) Capital
    D) Inflation
  11. When the government fixes a minimum price above equilibrium, it is called:
    A) Price floor
    B) Price ceiling
    C) Subsidy
    D) Inflation
  12. The difference between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Net Domestic Product (NDP) is:
    A) Inflation
    B) Subsidy
    C) Depreciation
    D) Investment
  13. The curve that shows the relationship between unemployment and inflation is called:
    A) Phillips curve
    B) Laffer curve
    C) Indifference curve
    D) Supply curve
  14. The main objective of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is to:
    A) Increase tariffs
    B) Regulate world trade
    C) Control multinational companies
    D) Promote colonialism
  15. Money can be used as all the following EXCEPT:
    A) A medium of exchange
    B) A measure of value
    C) A store of value
    D) A means of production
  16. Inflation caused by an increase in production costs is called:
    A) Cost-push inflation
    B) Demand-pull inflation
    C) Structural inflation
    D) Hyperinflation

GOVERNMENT

  1. Nigeria became nineteen states in:
    A) 1979
    B) 1976
    C) 1985
    D) 1966
  2. The Casablanca Group is known for:
    A) Advocating political union in Africa
    B) Promoting economic development
    C) Supporting colonial rule
    D) Encouraging military governments
  3. The Ombudsman in Nigeria is represented by:
    A) Public Opinion
    B) State
    C) Public Complaints Commission
    D) Public Complaints Committee
  4. In a sovereign nation, power is vested in:
    A) The President
    B) The State
    C) The Community
    D) The People
  1. The principle of separation of powers was popularized by:
    A) Jean Bodin
    B) John Locke
    C) Baron de Montesquieu
    D) Thomas Hobbes
  2. The body responsible for conducting elections in Nigeria is:
    A) NJC
    B) INEC
    C) ICPC
    D) EFCC
  3. Which organ of government interprets the law?
    A) Executive
    B) Legislature
    C) Judiciary
    D) Ombudsman
  4. A constitution that can be amended easily is called:
    A) Rigid
    B) Flexible
    C) Written
    D) Unwritten
  5. Who was the first executive president of Nigeria?
    A) Olusegun Obasanjo
    B) Nnamdi Azikiwe
    C) Shehu Shagari
    D) Yakubu Gowon
  6. The headquarters of the African Union (AU) is located in:
    A) Lagos
    B) Addis Ababa
    C) Cairo
    D) Nairobi
  7. A major feature of a federal system of government is:
    A) Dictatorship
    B) Centralization of power
    C) Division of power
    D) Monarchy
  8. The type of government where one person rules is called:
    A) Oligarchy
    B) Democracy
    C) Monarchy
    D) Aristocracy
  9. The 1979 Nigerian Constitution adopted the:
    A) Parliamentary system
    B) Confederal system
    C) Presidential system
    D) Unitary system
  10. The first military coup in Nigeria took place in:
    A) 1960
    B) 1963
    C) 1966
    D) 1975
  11. The highest court in Nigeria is the:
    A) Court of Appeal
    B) Supreme Court
    C) Federal High Court
    D) Magistrate Court
  12. One of the features of democracy is:
    A) Appointment by inheritance
    B) Rule of law
    C) Suppression of opposition
    D) Military rule
  13. The principle of collective responsibility applies to:
    A) The executive
    B) The judiciary
    C) The legislature
    D) The electorate
  14. The term bicameral legislature means:
    A) One legislative chamber
    B) Two legislative chambers
    C) Three legislative chambers
    D) Four legislative chambers
  15. Nigeria adopted the federal system of government in:
    A) 1914
    B) 1951
    C) 1954
    D) 1960
  16. The colonial policy of Indirect Rule was introduced in Nigeria by:
    A) Lord Lugard
    B) George Goldie
    C) MacPherson
    D) Hugh Clifford

Questions That Came Out on Friday , 25th April 2025

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

From The Lekki Headmaster:

1. This question is based on Kabir Garba’s The Lekki Headmaster:
“Ma, it is not everyone that brings there car to the school.”
What other term could he have used in place of there?
A. his or her
B. those
C. there
D. that

2. What other business were Stardom School owners involved in?
A. Engineering
B. Manufacturing
C. Real estate
D. Transport

3. What was the main thing parents admired about Stardom School?
A. Holding prefects’ election
B. Making learning difficult
C. Giving students great exposure
D. Visiting Badagry often

4. What was the relationship between Mrs. Matthew and Mr. Bepo?
A. Couple
B. They were co-workers
C. Co-tenants
D. Family members

5. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in italics:
The scientist made a pivotal discovery in cancer research.
A. Crucial
B. Unnecessary
C. Insignificant
D. Minor

6. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in italics:
The man enjoys esoteric manipulations.
A. Mystical
B. Basic
C. Dirty
D. Common

7. What was Bepo’s answer when Mr. Apeh asked him, “What was the matter, Principal?”
A. He said nothing
B. He gave details of what was troubling him
C. He shouted at her
D. He laughed

8. What does Chief Walimi’s story teach us?
A. Many rich people live on loans
B. Many rich people are careless
C. Stardom management is caring
D. Stardom School was a wonderful one

9. What subject does Mrs. Justus Anabel handle at Stardom School?
A. Mathematics
B. Chemistry
C. English
D. Economics

10. What was the title of the King of Badagry?
A. Olu of Badagry Kingdom
B. Alaafin of Badagry
C. Akran of Badagry
D. Ombadagry of Badagry

General English

11. Choose the word that rhymes with “Height”:
A. White
B. Weight
C. Eight
D. Hate

12. Choose the option nearest in meaning to the italicized word:
They gave a vivid description of the event, making it easy to picture.
A. Clear
B. Brief
C. Confusing
D. Dull

13. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the italicized word:
The First Lady was admired for her philanthropic gestures.
A. Condemned
B. Cherished
C. Adored
D. Lauded

14. “You again Mr. Bepo… what brings you out at this time of the day? Is this the students’ hostel you are to be minding?”
What figure of speech is used in the clause?
A. Rhetorical question
B. Personification
C. Oxymoron
D. Paradox

15. In the sentence below, a word is written in capital letters. Choose the option the sentence relates to:
All of US attended the ceremony.
A. Did all of us criticize the ceremony?
B. Did all of them attend the ceremony?
C. Did all of us attend the ceremony?
D. Did all of us contribute to the ceremony?

16. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word in italics:
Books are not supposed to be jumbled in the library.
A. Unnumbered
B. Arranged
C. Listed
D. Documented

17. Choose the word that rhymes with “Town”:
A. Own
B. Brown
C. Known
D. Blown

18. In this sentence, the capitalized letter has the emphatic stress. Choose the related question:
“I will be at the meeting SOON.”
A. Will I be at the meeting soon?
B. Will I be at the meeting soon?
C. Will I come to the meeting soon?
D. Will I come to the meeting town?

19. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the italicized word:
The old man worked in a leisurely place.
A. Relaxed
B. Slow
C. Calm
D. Rushed

20. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the italicized word:
Someone has to be cruel in order to be…
A. Kind
B. Respected
C. Honoured
D. Accepted

21. Choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the group of letters in “Edge”:
A. New
B. Bag
C. Jug
D. Blue

22. Who was wrongly accused and detained in The Lekki Headmaster?
A. Didi Ogba
B. Chief Walimi
C. Fafore
D. Didi Drogba

23. Choose the word that best completes the gap:
The Nobel Prize awarded to Wole Soyinka was for African best _______.
A. Literature
B. Writing
C. Culture

Comprehension & Vocabulary

  • Comprehension Passage: Rights of the Black Race
  • Close Passage: Loans and Banks

From The Lekki Headmaster (Further Questions):

1. What is the name of the Agric Teacher?
(Answer: Mr. Obi)

2. “He is a big-headed man. He behaves like he knows it all.”
What does this imply?
(Answer: He is arrogant.)

3. What vocational skill did the maintenance worker practice?
(Answer: Carpentry or related skill.)

4. What is the name of the poem that Bepo referenced?
(Answer: “The Road Not Taken” or as specified in the text.)

5. What subject did Mr. Fafore teach?
(Answer: English or Literature — depending on the story.)

6. What was the occupation of Sola’s husband?
(Answer: Driver or similar, based on the novel.)

7. What was the result of the ritual?
(Answer: No significant result or as per the novel.)

8. Choose the word opposite in meaning:
Julia is a precocious student.
(A. Dull)

9. Choose the word nearest in meaning:
The thief tried to conceal the evidence.
(A. Hide)

10. Idiomatic expressions:
Mr. Agba accused the police of having “an axe to grind” in the case.
(Meaning: Having a selfish interest.)

11. After missing a few assignments, Ikenna was asked to “pull his socks up”.
(Meaning: Improve his effort.)

12. Emphatic Stress:
Kemi put her bag HERE.
(Related question: Did Kemi put her bag HERE?)

13. Correct Stress Pattern:
Machinery
Answer: B. maCHInery

14. Correct Stress Pattern:
Personally
Answer: B. perSOnally

15. The Examination Board put effort to protect its ______ identity.
A. Candidate’s
B. Candidates’
C. Candidates
D. Candidate

16. If she had listened to my advice, she _______ happier now.
A. Would be
B. Would have been
C. Would
D. Will be

17. The book is John’s, not _______.
A. Your
B. Your’s
C. Yours
D. Your own

18. Word that rhymes with “Love”:
A. Cove
B. Wove
C. Dove

19. Word that rhymes with “Obtain”:
A. Curtain
B. Gain
C. Plain
D. Maintain

From the Novel The Lekki Headmaster

  • Who is the Agric Teacher?
    Answer: Mr. Obi
  • Who packed all those cars, where could they see the money to afford all these cars?
    Figure of Speech: D. Rhetorical Question

BIOLOGY

1. Which of these is hereditary from parents to offspring?

A. Phenotype
B. Genotype
C. Chromosomes
D. Gene

Answer: B

2. The excretory product of an earthworm is?

A. Malpighian tubule
B. Chromosomes
C. Caustic tubule
D. Nephridium

Answer: D

3. Biomes mean?

Answer: Large natural communities of flora and fauna occupying a major habitat (e.g., forest, desert).

4. Diagram of Vagina without labels:

  • Part 1 begins at the Clitoris
  • The Labia part was questioned.

5. A plantation in arid land can survive if?

A. High temperature
B. High rainfall
C. Low bushes
D. No trees

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Arid land: A dry area with little or no rain where plants need special adaptations to survive.

6. The theory of heredity was proposed by?

A. Lamarck
B. Theodore Schwann
C. Charles Darwin
D. Gregor Mendel

Answer: D (Gregor Mendel)

7. Ascending evolutionary trend:

A. Algae → Conifers → Mosses → Ferns
B. Ferns → Algae → Conifers → Mosses
C. Algae → Mosses → Ferns → Conifers
D. Mosses → Algae → Conifers → Ferns

Answer: C

8. Plants whose fruits are dispersed by wind?

A. Caryopsis
B. Schizocarp
C. Cypsela
D. Capsule

Answer: C

9. The repeating units of DNA molecules are made up of?

A. Phosphate
B. Deoxyribose sugar
C. Nitrogenous bases
D. Nucleotides

Answer: D

10. Macronutrients needed in plants include?

A. Iron
B. Cobalt
C. Boron
D. Zinc

Answer: A

11. Example of saprophytic organisms:

A. Bladderwort
B. Sundew
C. Rhizopus
D. Mistletoe

Answer: C

12. Oxygen transported to all parts of body during blood circulation is used for?

A. Formation of carboxyl haemoglobin
B. Growth and development of cells
C. Removal of waste product
D. Recycle of energy food

Answer: B

EXCRETORY SYSTEM

13. Which of the following organs is NOT involved in excretion?

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Skin
D. Pancreas

Answer: D

14. The primary excretory product in mammals is:

A. Urea
B. Ammonia
C. Uric acid
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: A

15. Which of the following is a function of the liver in excretion?

A. Production of urine
B. Conversion of ammonia to urea
C. Storage of glycogen
D. Filtration of blood

Answer: B

16. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is:

A. Nephron
B. Glomerulus
C. Bowman’s capsule
D. Loop of Henle

Answer: A

17. Ultrafiltration in the kidney occurs in the:

A. Loop of Henle
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Bowman’s capsule
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Answer: C

18. The hormone that regulates water reabsorption in the kidney is:

A. Insulin
B. Adrenaline
C. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
D. Thyroxine

Answer: C

19. Which of the following is NOT a waste product excreted by the skin?

A. Urea
B. Water
C. Salts
D. Glucose

Answer: D

20. The main nitrogenous waste excreted by birds is:

A. Urea
B. Ammonia
C. Uric acid
D. Amino acids

Answer: C

21. The process by which the kidneys regulate the body’s water content is called:

A. Osmoregulation
B. Thermoregulation
C. Dialysis
D. Filtration

Answer: A

22. Which part of the nephron is responsible for selective reabsorption?

A. Glomerulus
B. Loop of Henle
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct

Answer: C

23. The main function of the loop of Henle is to:

A. Filter blood
B. Concentrate urine
C. Secrete hormones
D. Store urine

Answer: B

24. Which of the following conditions results from the failure of the kidneys to produce urine?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Anuria
C. Diuresis
D. Glycosuria

Answer: B

25. The dark color of urine may be due to the presence of:

A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Amino acids
D. Fatty acids

Answer: A

26. The process of artificial filtering of blood in kidney failure patients is called:

A. Osmoregulation
B. Dialysis
C. Reabsorption
D. Secretion

Answer: B

27. Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?

A. Regulation of blood pH
B. Removal of metabolic wastes
C. Production of bile
D. Regulation of blood pressure

Answer: C

28. The presence of glucose in urine is called:

A. Uremia
B. Glycosuria
C. Hematuria
D. Proteinuria

Answer: B

29. Which of the following is NOT part of the urinary system?

A. Ureter
B. Bladder
C. Urethra
D. Pancreas

Answer: D

30. The main excretory organ in insects is:

A. Kidney
B. Malpighian tubule
C. Nephridia
D. Liver

Answer: B

31. The term “excretion” refers to the removal of:

A. Undigested food
B. Metabolic waste products
C. Excess water only
D. Hormones

Answer: B

32. Which of the following animals excretes urea?

A. Fish
B. Bird
C. Frog
D. Insect

Answer: C

33. The biome characterized by tall grasses and scattered trees is:

A. Tropical forest
B. Mangrove
C. Guinea Savanna
D. Desert

Answer: C

34. The trees in mangrove swamp have:

A. Broad leaves
B. Thick cuticle
C. Deep tap roots
D. Aerial roots

Answer: D

35. How is carbon dioxide returned to the atmosphere?

A. Transpiration
B. Respiration
C. Decomposition
D. Photosynthesis

Answer: C

36. What is the main function of the Xylem?

Answer: Transport of water and mineral salts from roots to other parts of the plant.

37. Diagram of the tooth (not drawn)

38. Diagram of bacteria (not drawn)

39. Diagram of artery: this vessel is used for?

A. Taking blood to the heart
B. Capillary
C. Taking blood away from the heart

Answer: C

40. The leaf of a fern is called:

A. Sori
B. True leaves
C. Fronds
D. False leaves

Answer: C

41. The pentadactyl evidence of evolution is:

A. Molecular record
B. Physiological record
C. Comparative Anatomy
D. None of the above

Answer: C

42. A place characterized by tall grasses and scattered trees:

A. Zamfara
B. Yobe
C. Kwara

Answer: A (Zamfara is typical savanna)

43. The theory of acquired traits was proposed by:

A. Darwin
B. Lamarck
C. Robert

Answer: B

44. The correction of hypermetropia is using:

A. Concave lens
B. Convex lens
C. Bifocal lens
D. Biconcave lens

Answer: B

45. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is by:

A. Budding
B. Conjugation
C. Fission
D. Sporulation

Answer: B

46. The organelle responsible for photosynthesis in plants is:

A. Mitochondrium
B. Guard cells
C. Chloroplast

Answer: C

47. The alternate form of a gene is called:

A. Chromosome
B. Allele
C. Variation

Answer: B

48. The unit of gene that passes characteristics to offspring is:

A. Chromosome
B. Centromere
C. Gene

Answer: C

49. An example of discontinuous variation is:

A. Height
B. Eye colour
C. Blood group
D. Size

Answer: C

50. An alteration of gene that can cause a change in a generation is:

A. Mutation
B. Variation

Answer: A

51. A test cross between a carrier of albinism (Aa) and an albino (aa) will result in probability of albino offspring being:

A. 1
B. ¼
C. 2
D. ½

Answer: D

Questions That Came Out on Thursday, 24th April 2025

ENGLISH

  1. Register on Security Council (Nos. 6–15)
  2. Stress
  3. Same consonant sound with “house”:
    A. Happy
    B. Ghost
    C. …
    D. …
  4. Stress pattern of a word ending with “scent”
  5. Summary passage on birds – how they are recognized by the sounds they produce and how they call to each other in the sight of prey or to gather.

Lekki Headmaster

  1. The king of Badagry is:
    A. The Olu of Badagry Kingdom
    B. The Alaafin of Badagry
    C. The Akran of Badagry
    D. Onibadar of Badagry
  2. The man wrongly accused of corruption in Lekki Headmaster was:
    A. Didi Ogba
    B. Chief Waliem
    C. Farore
    D. Didi Drogba
  3. What was Bepo’s answer when Mrs. Apeh asked, “What is the matter, Principal?”
    A. He said nothing
    B. He gave details of what was troubling him
    C. He shouted at her
    D. He laughed
  4. What does the Chief Walker story teach us?
    A. That many rich people live on loans
    B. That many rich people are careless
    C. The Stardom management was caring
    D. The Stardom school was a wonderful one
  5. What subject did Mr. Justice Anabel handle at Stardom School?
    A. English
    B. Mathematics
    C. Economics
    D. Chemistry
  6. What is the relationship between Oya Mattew and Mr. Bepo?
    A. Couple
    B. Co-workers
    C. Family
    D. Co-tenants
  7. One thing parents admired about Stardom School was:
    A. Holding prefect elections
    B. Making learning difficult
    C. Giving students great exposure
    D. Visiting Badagry often
  8. What other business were Stardom School’s owners involved in?
    A. Engineering
    B. Manufacturing
    C. Real estate
    D. Transport
  9. “Ma, it’s not everyone that brings their cars into the school.” What other term could be used in place of “their”?
    A. His/her
    B. Those
    C. There
    D. That
  10. Sola and her husband travel by what in Manchester?
    A. By road
    B. By airplane
    C. By rail
    D. …
  11. Why did (female character) offer Mr. Bepo a handkerchief?
    A. She didn’t have any drug on her
    B. That was all she could think of to do
    C. Because Mr. Ope Wande had prayed
    D. …
  12. What did Mr. Bepo consider key to succeeding in the commercial transport business?
    A. Trustworthy drivers
    B. Quality of vehicle
    C. …
    D. …
  13. The Open Day at Stardom School is when:
    A. Parents get updated on their children’s academics
    B. Teachers relax
    C. …
    D. …
  14. What does Mr. Bepo refer to as the new slavery?
    A. Africans willingly going abroad
    B. …
    C. …
    D. …
  15. Black Heritage Museum – (Question incomplete)
  16. Questions based on quotations: Identify who said it or to whom it was said
  17. Bepo’s retirement plans portray him as:
    A. A thoughtful man
    B. Unambitious
    C. …
    D. …
  18. “If you beat my height, you can’t beat my eyes” – Mr. Bepo. What does this mean?
  1. What figure of speech is used in the expression: “The stars danced across the sky”?
    A. Simile
    B. Hyperbole
    C. Personification
    D. Metaphor
  2. Choose the correct option that best completes the sentence:
    Neither the boy nor his friends ___ present at the meeting.
    A. was
    B. were
    C. is
    D. be
  3. Which of the following words contains a diphthong?
    A. Sit
    B. Cow
    C. Cup
    D. Bed
  4. Identify the correct stress pattern for the word “understand”:
    A. UNDERstand
    B. unDERstand
    C. underSTAND
    D. UnderSTAND
  5. What is the meaning of the idiom: “to cry over spilled milk”?
    A. To complain about a minor problem
    B. To regret something that cannot be undone
    C. To seek unnecessary sympathy
    D. To complain to the wrong person
  6. In the passage, the author implies that the solution was “a bitter pill to swallow.” This means:
    A. The solution was sweet and enjoyable
    B. The solution was easy to accept
    C. The solution was unpleasant but necessary
    D. The solution was ineffective
  7. Select the option that has the same vowel sound as “seat”:
    A. Bit
    B. Sit
    C. Beat
    D. Set
  8. Fill in the gap:
    The teacher asked the students to keep ___ books on the table.
    A. there
    B. their
    C. they’re
    D. they’re
  9. What is the synonym of the word “benevolent”?
    A. Harsh
    B. Mean
    C. Kind
    D. Proud
  10. Choose the correct passive form:
    The mechanic repairs the car every week.
    A. The car is repaired by the mechanic every week
    B. The car was being repaired by the mechanic every week
    C. The car had been repaired by the mechanic every week
    D. The mechanic is repairing the car every week
  11. What is the antonym of “diligent”?
    A. Careless
    B. Bright
    C. Attentive
    D. Responsible
  12. Complete the sentence with the appropriate option:
    Had I known, I ___ have listened to your advice.
    A. will
    B. would
    C. must
    D. can

BIOLOGY

  1. Transparency can be measured with what instrument?
    A. Secchi disk
    B. Hygrometer
    C. Anemometer
    D. Hydrometer
  2. Who proposed the theory of use and disuse?
    A. Gregor Mendel
    B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
    C. Charles Darwin
    D. Hugo de Vries
  3. How many chromosomes are present in humans?
    A. 48
    B. 46
    C. 23
    D. 22
  4. Which of the following is saprophytic?
    A. Sundew
    B. Rhizopus
    C. Mistletoe
    D. Bladderwort
  5. Which of the following belongs to the organ level of organization?
    A. Onion bulb
    B. Hydra
    C. Euglena
    D. Amoeba
  6. Which of these is a physiological variation?
    A. Body shape
    B. Size
    C. Tongue rolling
    D. Fingerprint
  7. Plants found in the desert are called?
    A. Xerophytes
    B. Hydrophytes
    C. Mesophytes
    D. Halophytes
  8. A diagram asks you to identify “II” which happens to be the uterus.
  9. What differentiates a bat from a bird?
    A. It has mammary glands
    B. It can fly
    C. It is warm-blooded
    D. It lays eggs
  10. The small hind legs of the whale indicate?
    A. Evolution from legged ancestors
    B. It’s used for swimming
    C. Remains of lost organs
    D. It’s amphibious
  11. What is the correct order of plant evolution?
    A. Algae → Ferns → Mosses → Conifers
    B. Algae → Mosses → Ferns → Conifers
    C. Mosses → Conifers → Ferns → Algae
    D. Ferns → Algae → Mosses → Conifers
  12. Which of the following is involved in transportation in plants?
    A. Xylem
    B. Stomata
    C. Cambium
    D. Cortex
  13. The genetic makeup of an organism is called?
    A. Genotype
    B. Phenotype
    C. Chromosome
    D. Gene
  14. Insects respire through?
    A. Lungs
    B. Malpighian tubules
    C. Spiracles
    D. Gills
  15. Which of the following is an example of a sex-linked trait?
    A. Hemophilia
    B. Tongue rolling
    C. Blood group
    D. Dimples
  16. A long, narrow, and tubular beak in birds is adapted for?
    A. Sucking nectar
    B. Tearing flesh
    C. Cracking seeds
    D. Digging
  17. Which of these is a macronutrient?
    A. Iron
    B. Boron
    C. Copper
    D. Nitrogen
  18. The longest bone in the human body is?
    A. Humerus
    B. Scapula
    C. Femur
    D. Tibia
  19. The bacteria in the rumen of cows exhibit what type of association?
    A. Symbiosis
    B. Commensalism
    C. Parasitism
    D. Mutualism
  20. Camouflage in a chameleon is mainly for?
    A. Defense
    B. Attack
    C. Feeding
    D. Reproduction
  21. What forms sucrose?
    A. Glucose + Glucose
    B. Glucose + Fructose
    C. Glucose + Galactose
    D. Maltose + Glucose
  22. Acid hydrolysis of maltose gives?
    A. Fructose
    B. Mannose
    C. Glucose
    D. Lactose
  23. Cows and goats feeding on the same grassland exhibit?
    A. Interspecific competition
    B. Intraspecific competition
    C. Mutualism
    D. Commensalism
  24. Which of the following gives a brick-red precipitate in a food test?
    A. Millon’s test
    B. Biuret test
    C. Benedict’s test
    D. Iodine test
  25. Which of the following is a characteristic of living things?
    A. Decay
    B. Movement
    C. Rusting
    D. Boiling
  26. The part of the brain responsible for maintaining balance is?
    A. Cerebrum
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Medulla
    D. Hypothalamus
  27. What type of reproduction involves only one parent?
    A. Asexual
    B. Sexual
    C. Fertilization
    D. Pollination
  28. Which organ in humans detoxifies harmful substances?
    A. Kidney
    B. Heart
    C. Liver
    D. Lungs
  29. What component of blood helps in clotting?
    A. Plasma
    B. White blood cells
    C. Red blood cells
    D. Platelets
  30. The enzyme responsible for breaking down protein in the stomach is?
    A. Amylase
    B. Maltase
    C. Pepsin
    D. Lipase

CHEMISTRY

  1. How many isomers of C₄H₁₀ exist?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
  2. Calcium reacts with water to form?
    A. CaO₂
    B. Ca(OH)₂
    C. CaOH
    D. CaH₂
  3. What method is used when sea water releases its mud on the shore?
    A. Sedimentation
    B. Filtration
    C. Decantation
    D. Crystallization
  4. The hybridization of methane (CH₄) is?
    A. sp
    B. sp²
    C. sp³
    D. sp⁴
  5. In which type of reaction will the effect of pressure be most observable?
    A. Gaseous reactants only
    B. Solid and liquid mixture
    C. Solid reactants only
    D. Aqueous solution
  6. Why is aluminum used in making airplanes?
    A. It is light and resists corrosion
    B. It conducts heat
    C. It is malleable
    D. It is expensive
  7. Calculate the number of moles in 10L of gas at STP (22.4L/mol).
    A. 0.44 mol
    B. 0.50 mol
    C. 0.67 mol
    D. 0.89 mol
  8. Substances that readily absorb moisture from the atmosphere are called?
    A. Efflorescent
    B. Deliquescent
    C. Hygroscopic
    D. Hydrophilic
  9. What is a common solvent for paints?
    A. Turpentine
    B. Water
    C. Methanol
    D. Acetone
  10. Ethanoic acid is also known as?
    A. Acetic acid
    B. Formic acid
    C. Citric acid
    D. Oxalic acid
  11. What is the IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂OH?
    A. Methyl alcohol
    B. Ethyl alcohol
    C. Propanol
    D. Ethanol
  12. Which of the following elements has a valency of 2?
    A. Sodium
    B. Magnesium
    C. Nitrogen
    D. Potassium
  13. Identify the primary amine from the list:
    A. CH₃NH₂
    B. (CH₃)₂NH
    C. (CH₃)₃N
    D. (CH₃)₄N⁺
  14. In a redox reaction, the reducing agent is the substance that?
    A. Loses electrons
    B. Gains electrons
    C. Donates protons
    D. Accepts oxygen
  15. Which gas causes irritation of eyes and respiratory tract?
    A. Nitrogen
    B. Sulphur dioxide
    C. Methane
    D. Carbon monoxide
  16. What type of reaction occurs between H₂SO₄ and KCl?
    A. Double displacement
    B. Precipitation
    C. Redox
    D. Neutralization
  17. Which metal is extracted from bauxite ore?
    A. Zinc
    B. Iron
    C. Copper
    D. Aluminum
  18. What is the shape of the s-orbital?
    A. Dumb-bell
    B. Spherical
    C. Elliptical
    D. Planar
  19. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
    A. Ethene
    B. Ethyne
    C. Methane
    D. Benzene
  20. Which of the following statements is true of Group 1 elements?
    A. They are all non-metals
    B. They form basic oxides
    C. They do not react with water
    D. They are found as diatomic gases
  21. Which is a characteristic of transition metals?
    A. High reactivity
    B. Colored compounds
    C. Non-metallic behavior
    D. Inertness
  22. What is the pH of a neutral solution at 25°C?
    A. 6
    B. 7
    C. 8
    D. 5
  23. Which compound contains a coordinate covalent bond?
    A. HCl
    B. NH₄⁺
    C. NaCl
    D. CH₄
  24. What is the molar mass of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃)?
    A. 80 g/mol
    B. 100 g/mol
    C. 60 g/mol
    D. 40 g/mol
  25. Which of these metals will displace hydrogen from dilute HCl?
    A. Copper
    B. Silver
    C. Zinc
    D. Gold
  26. Which of the following reactions is an example of esterification?
    A. Acid + Base
    B. Acid + Alcohol
    C. Salt + Water
    D. Alkane + Oxygen
  27. A mixture of iodine and sand can best be separated by?
    A. Filtration
    B. Sublimation
    C. Distillation
    D. Decantation
  28. What happens to the rate of a reaction if temperature increases?
    A. Decreases
    B. Increases
    C. Remains the same
    D. Becomes zero
  29. The process of removing impurities from metal ores is called?
    A. Roasting
    B. Mining
    C. Concentration
    D. Electrolysis
  30. Which gas is liberated when sodium reacts with water?
    A. Oxygen
    B. Chlorine
    C. Hydrogen
    D. Nitrogen

PHYSICS

  1. The graphical representation of pressure law is a straight line passing through the origin only if the temperature scale is
    A. Rankine
    B. Thermodynamic
    C. Celsius
    D. Fahrenheit
  2. The density of water is 1 g/cm³ while that of ice is 0.9 g/cm³. Calculate the change in volume when 90 g of ice completely melts.
    A. 10 cm³
    B. 0 cm³
    C. 90 cm³
    D. 9 cm³
  3. A plane inclined at 45° is used to raise a load to a height of 20 m. Calculate the distance moved by the effort.
    A. 28.28 m
    B. 16.42 m
    C. 34.36 m
    D. 6.71 m
  4. A man moves 6.0 m East, then 10.0 m N30°E. How far is he from his starting point?
    A. 12.0 m
    B. 17.0 m
    C. 15.0 m
    D. 14.0 m
  5. A boy lifts a 20 kg mass using a pulley system at a velocity of 5 m/s. Calculate the power developed (g = 10 m/s²).
    A. 40 W
    B. 100 W
    C. 250 W
    D. 1000 W
  6. Which of the following is not true about a wave on a plucked string?
    A. It has a crest
    B. It is transverse
    C. It is longitudinal
    D. It is mechanical
  7. The speed of sound in a solid at 0°C is 1000 m/s. What is the speed at 25°C?
    A. 1043 m/s
    B. 1044 m/s
    C. 1045 m/s
    D. 1042 m/s
  8. Photoelectrons are emitted with maximum energy of 2.20 × 10⁻¹⁹ J. Calculate the stopping potential. [1 eV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J]
    A. 1.60 V
    B. 1.50 V
    C. 1.40 V
    D. 1.55 V
  9. According to the kinetic theory of gases, pressure exerted by a gas is
    A. Momentum imparted to the walls per unit area
    B. Change in momentum per unit volume
    C. Rate of change of momentum per second per unit area
    D. Impulse on the wall
  10. Calculate the kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg moving at 3 m/s.
    A. 6 J
    B. 9 J
    C. 3 J
    D. 12 J
  11. A copper rod 2 m long is heated from 30°C to 80°C. If its linear expansivity is 1.7 × 10⁻⁵/°C, calculate its increase in length.
    A. 1.7 mm
    B. 1.0 mm
    C. 1.3 mm
    D. 2.0 mm
  12. A force of 10 N is applied on an area of 2 m². Find the pressure.
    A. 5 N/m²
    B. 20 N/m²
    C. 0.2 N/m²
    D. 10 N/m²
  13. What is the unit of specific heat capacity?
    A. J/kg
    B. J/kg·K
    C. J/kg·m²
    D. N/m
  14. The work done in moving a charge of 3 C through a potential difference of 12 V is?
    A. 36 J
    B. 4 J
    C. 15 J
    D. 9 J
  15. A 5 m long wire stretches by 1 mm under a load. Find the strain.
    A. 2 × 10⁻⁴
    B. 1 × 10⁻⁴
    C. 5 × 10⁻⁴
    D. 1 × 10⁻³
  16. A gas occupies 2 L at 300 K. What will be its volume at 400 K, assuming pressure is constant?
    A. 2.5 L
    B. 2.67 L
    C. 3.0 L
    D. 4.0 L
  17. The electrochemical equivalent of silver is 0.00112 g/C. Calculate the mass deposited when 2 A current flows for 10 minutes.
    A. 1.34 g
    B. 1.20 g
    C. 2.24 g
    D. 0.90 g
  18. What is the resistance of an electric iron rated 1000 W, 250 V?
    A. 62.5 Ω
    B. 50.0 Ω
    C. 100.0 Ω
    D. 75.5 Ω
  19. What is the energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance 10 µF charged to 200 V?
    A. 0.2 J
    B. 0.5 J
    C. 0.1 J
    D. 0.4 J
  20. What is the frequency of a wave of speed 300 m/s and wavelength 1.5 m?
    A. 100 Hz
    B. 200 Hz
    C. 150 Hz
    D. 300 Hz
  21. What is the velocity ratio of a machine that moves a load through 2 m while effort moves 10 m?
    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 0.2
    D. 2
  22. A current of 3 A flows for 5 minutes. How many coulombs of charge flow through the circuit?
    A. 900 C
    B. 15 C
    C. 60 C
    D. 150 C
  23. Which of these best describes a scalar quantity?
    A. Acceleration
    B. Force
    C. Pressure
    D. Displacement
  24. Which law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant pressure?
    A. Boyle’s Law
    B. Charles’ Law
    C. Newton’s Law
    D. Hooke’s Law
  25. A block of wood of volume 200 cm³ is fully immersed in water. What is the upthrust on it? (Density of water = 1000 kg/m³, g = 10 m/s²)
    A. 2.0 N
    B. 1.5 N
    C. 1.0 N
    D. 0.5 N
  26. A transformer has 100 turns on the primary coil and 1000 turns on the secondary coil. What is the output voltage if the input is 12 V?
    A. 120 V
    B. 100 V
    C. 240 V
    D. 150 V
  27. A resistor of 4 Ω and a lamp of 6 Ω are connected in series. Find the total resistance.
    A. 10 Ω
    B. 2.4 Ω
    C. 6 Ω
    D. 12 Ω
  28. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with a velocity of 20 m/s. What is its time of flight? (g = 10 m/s²)
    A. 2 s
    B. 4 s
    C. 3 s
    D. 1 s
  29. If a body of mass 50 g is heated from 20°C to 70°C and absorbs 4200 J, calculate the specific heat capacity.
    A. 1680 J/kg°C
    B. 1200 J/kg°C
    C. 800 J/kg°C
    D. 1000 J/kg°C
  30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
    A. Acceleration
    B. Pressure
    C. Force
    D. Momentum

GOVERNMENT

  1. Waziri – Chief adviser to the Emir in the pre-colonial Hausa system.
  2. President’s Power (Fourth Republic) – The president has the power to appoint ministers.
  3. Two-Party System (Third Republic) – Nigeria operated a two-party system under the 1989 Constitution.
  4. Pressure Group for Workers – All Nigerian workers are represented by the Nigerian Labour Congress (NLC).
  5. Sarkin Fawa – The head of butchers in the pre-colonial era.
  6. Two-Party System (Second Republic) – Practiced between 1979–1983.
  7. Diplomatic Break with France – Occurred under General Yakubu Gowon (1961–1965).
  8. Clifford Constitution – Established the foundation for a Legislative Council in Nigeria.
  9. Disadvantage of Deregulation – Raises concerns about environmental degradation.
  10. Nigeria’s Foreign Policy Focus – “Africa as the centrepiece” means prioritizing African unity and liberation.
  11. Colonialism – Describes the economic exploitation and political subjugation during the colonial era.
  12. Creation of 12 States – Happened in 1967 by General Yakubu Gowon.
  13. Unitarism – A system where constitutional powers lie in the center.
  14. Federal Character Commission – Ensures equitable representation in government.
  15. Sovereignty – The right to enforce obedience among citizens.
  16. Foreign Policy Formulation – Done by The Executive (President & Federal Executive Council).
  17. Armed Forces Ruling Council (AFRC) – Existed during General Ibrahim Babangida’s regime (1985–1993).

ALLSCHOOL TEAM

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