This page will show you the exact questions that came out in this year’s JAMB CBT MOCK Exam.

This will be helpful for candidates ahead of the main examination. The purpose is to give candidates fresh ideas on the kind of questions to expect during the main exam and motivate them towards stepping up their preparation for the main exam that begins on March 28th, 2026.

These are the real questions that were asked in the exam hall. They are categorized by subject. While similar questions may be repeated, do note that you may NOT see any of these questions in the main exam. So just use the questions you see on this page as a guide to know what to expect in the main exam.

Page Contents

1) USE OF ENGLISH
SECTION B: ORAL ENGLISH / STRESS / SOUND
2) MATHEMATICS
3) PHYSICS
4) CHEMISTRY
5) BIOLOGY
Government
Economics
Literature in English
CRS
Computer Studies
Recommended Articles:

1) USE OF ENGLISH

1. The manager’s decision to sack the accountant was “a bolt from the blue.”

The expression “a bolt from the blue” means:

A. an expected decision
B. a shocking surprise
C. a wise judgment
D. a delayed reaction

Answer: B

2. The witness gave a candid account of what happened at the scene of the accident.

Choose the word most opposite in meaning to candid.

A. honest
B. frank
C. deceptive
D. direct

Answer: C

3. If I _______ the Managing Director, I would have promoted him immediately.

A. am
B. was
C. were
D. be

Answer: C

4. The students were told to look _______ the difficult words in the dictionary.

A. up
B. on
C. at
D. in

Answer: A

5. He could not attend the meeting ___ he was ill.

A. because
B. although
C. since
D. but

Answer: A

6. Find the synonym for alleviate.

A. worsen
B. reduce
C. increase
D. complicate

Answer: B

7. Despite his repeated warnings, she continued to ignore the rules, _______ the consequences that followed.

A. invites the consequences knowingly
B. evades all the consequences
C. risks facing what comes
D. unaware of any consequences

Answer: C

SECTION B: ORAL ENGLISH / STRESS / SOUND

8. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.

A. Prepare
B. Record (Verb)
C. Teacher
D. Attend

Answer: C

9. Which of the following words has the same vowel sound as the underlined sound in cup?

A. love
B. food
C. boot
D. coat

Answer: A

10. Which of the following words rhymes with vice?

A. peace
B. price
C. vase
D. voice

Answer: B

11. In the sentence “Aisha spoke French FLUENTLY”, the emphatic stress on fluently suggests that:

A. Aisha spoke only a little French
B. Aisha spoke French with ease and skill
C. Aisha refused to speak French
D. Aisha wrote French very well

Answer: B

12. A passage is given followed by questions that test understanding and inference. This section of Use of English is known as:

A. Lexis and Structure
B. Comprehension
C. Summary Writing
D. Oral English

Answer: B

13. Choose the word nearest in meaning to optimistic.

A. doubtful
B. hopeful
C. careless
D. fearful

Answer: B

14. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to vague.

A. uncertain
B. obscure
C. precise
D. doubtful

Answer: C

15. A gaffe is best described as:

A. a serious illness
B. a social mistake
C. a clever remark
D. a legal argument

Answer: B

16. If a person is insolvent, the person is:

A. very healthy
B. unable to pay debts
C. highly respected
D. full of energy

Answer: B

17. Choose the word nearest in meaning to imperative.

A. optional
B. unnecessary
C. essential
D. doubtful

Answer: C

18. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to nefarious.

A. wicked
B. noble
C. dangerous
D. corrupt

Answer: B

19. Choose the correct interpretation of the idiom:

“He was scorned by his peers.”

A. He was praised by his friends
B. He was mocked and looked down on
C. He was elected by his classmates
D. He was secretly admired

Answer: B

2) MATHEMATICS

1. Solve: (x^2 – 5x + 6 = 0)

A. (x = 1) or (6)
B. (x = 2) or (3)
C. (x = -2) or (-3)
D. (x = 5) or (6)

Answer: B

2. Solve simultaneously:

(2x + y = 7)
(x – y = 2)

A. (x = 2, y = 3)
B. (x = 3, y = 1)
C. (x = 1, y = 5)
D. (x = 4, y = -1)

Answer: B

3. The mean of 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 is:

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Answer: C

4. The median of 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 is:

A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Answer: B

5. The mode of 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 5, 6 is:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: C

7. Differentiate (y = 3x^2 + 4x – 7)

A. (6x + 4)
B. (3x + 4)
C. (6x – 7)
D. (3x^2 + 4)

Answer: A

8. The probability of getting a sum that is even when two dice are rolled is:

Answer: C
(Even sum occurs when both dice are odd or both are even.)

Answer: A

10. A man moved 20 km north, 16 km east, and 8 km south. What is his distance from the starting point?

A. 20 km
B. 24 km
C. 28 km
D. 32 km

Answer: A

3) PHYSICS

1. The SI unit of electric charge is:

A. Coulomb
B. Ampere
C. Volt
D. Ohm

Answer: A

2. A body accelerates from 10 m/s to 30 m/s in 4 seconds. What is its acceleration?

A. (5 , m/s^2)
B. (10 , m/s^2)
C. (15 , m/s^2)
D. (20 , m/s^2)

Answer: A

3. If a lens forms a real image, it must be a:

A. Concave lens
B. Convex lens
C. Diverging lens
D. Plano-concave lens

Answer: B

4. An emf of 2.6 V and internal resistance of 0.2 Ω are connected to a 3.5 Ω resistor. What is the current in the circuit?

A. 0.5 A
B. 0.7 A
C. 1.0 A
D. 1.5 A

Answer: B

5. Three capacitors are arranged such that 2 μF and 4 μF are connected in parallel, and the combination is connected in series with 3 μF. The effective capacitance is:

A. 1 μF
B. 2 μF
C. 3 μF
D. 6 μF

Answer: B

6. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at (2 , m/s^2). What is its speed after 5 seconds?

A. 5 m/s
B. 10 m/s
C. 15 m/s
D. 20 m/s

Answer: B

7. According to Ohm’s law,

A. current is directly proportional to resistance at constant voltage
B. voltage is directly proportional to current at constant temperature
C. resistance is directly proportional to current at constant voltage
D. power is directly proportional to voltage only

Answer: B

8. An object is projected horizontally from a height of 50 m. Take (g = 10 , m/s^2). How long does it take to reach the ground?

A. 2 s
B. 3 s
C. 4 s
D. 5 s

Answer: B

10. In wave motion, wavelength is defined as the:

A. height of a wave
B. time taken for one oscillation
C. distance between two successive crests or troughs
D. speed of propagation of the wave

Answer: C

4) CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following molecules has the highest electronegativity difference?

A. HCl
B. CO₂
C. NH₃
D. CH₄

Answer: A

2. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

A. Na₂O
B. Al₂O₃
C. CO₂
D. SO₂

Answer: B

3. The reaction between an acid and a base is called:

A. oxidation
B. reduction
C. neutralization
D. displacement

Answer: C

4. Aqua regia is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated trioxonitrate(V) acid in the ratio of:

A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2
C. 3 : 1
D. 2 : 3

Answer: C

5. Soft solder is an alloy of lead and:

A. copper
B. zinc
C. tin
D. iron

Answer: C

6. The non-volatile residue from the destructive distillation of coal is:

A. coal gas
B. ammoniacal liquor
C. coal tar
D. coke

Answer: D

7. How is silicon(IV) oxide removed from haematite during extraction of iron?

A. By heating alone
B. By reaction with limestone to form slag
C. By oxidation with air
D. By electrolysis

Answer: B

8. Detergents are manufactured with long hydrocarbon chains so as to make them:

A. acidic
B. hydrophobic
C. basic
D. volatile

Answer: B

9. The alkaline derivative commonly used as a disinfectant is:

A. phenol
B. ethanol
C. hydrogen peroxide
D. iodine

Answer: A
(Phenol and related phenolic compounds are classically referenced in older syllabi.)

10. Which of the following best explains chemical bonding?

A. The process by which atoms lose all electrons
B. The force holding atoms together in a compound
C. The separation of compounds into elements
D. The melting of a solid substance

Answer: B

11. The number of particles in one mole of a substance is:

A. (6.02 \times 10^{21})
B. (6.02 \times 10^{22})
C. (6.02 \times 10^{23})
D. (6.02 \times 10^{24})

Answer: C

12. The periodic table is arranged mainly in order of increasing:

A. atomic mass
B. atomic number
C. neutron number
D. valency only

Answer: B

13. The product of decarboxylation of phenylmethanoic acid is:

A. benzene
B. toluene
C. ethanol
D. ethene

Answer: B

5) BIOLOGY

1. Which of the following statements best explains the term aestivation?

A. A method of survival adopted by animals under favourable condition
B. A method of survival adopted by plants during dry season
C. A device for survival during a period of extreme food and water shortage
D. Movement of animals over long distance

Answer: C

2. Which of the following is the vector of cholera?

A. Housefly
B. Mosquito
C. Cockroach
D. Tsetse fly

Answer: A

3. The concentration of salt in brackish water is:

A. high
B. low
C. moderate
D. zero

Answer: C

4. Which of the following has only one body opening?

A. Euglena
B. Amoeba
C. Paramecium
D. Hydra

Answer: D

5. The major excretory product of earthworm is:

A. urea
B. uric acid
C. ammonia
D. carbon dioxide

Answer: C

6. The middle ear consists of:

A. cochlea, semicircular canals, and auditory nerve
B. pinna, auditory canal, and eardrum
C. malleus, incus, and stapes
D. tympanum and cochlea only

Answer: C

7. The study of a single organism and how it interacts with its environment is known as:

A. autecology
B. synecology
C. taxonomy
D. physiology

Answer: A

8. A bird with a flat and wide beak is adapted to feed by:

A. tearing flesh
B. probing mud
C. filtering food from water
D. cracking seeds

Answer: C

9. Which structure in Amoeba is responsible for water balance?

A. nucleus
B. food vacuole
C. contractile vacuole
D. pseudopodium

Answer: C

10. The relationship between a remora fish and a shark is:

A. parasitism
B. commensalism
C. mutualism
D. predation

Answer: B

11. A cross between a red flower and a white flower producing pink offspring is an example of:

A. complete dominance
B. incomplete dominance
C. co-dominance
D. sex linkage

Answer: B

12. The phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross in the F₂ generation is:

A. 1 : 2 : 1
B. 3 : 1
C. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
D. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

Answer: C

13. Injury to the cerebellum mainly affects:

A. vision
B. memory
C. muscular coordination and balance
D. digestion

Answer: C

14. Deficiency of Vitamin K leads to:

A. night blindness
B. rickets
C. poor blood clotting
D. scurvy

Answer: C

15. The dental formula of an adult human is:

A. (2.1.2.3 / 2.1.2.3)
B. (2.2.1.3 / 2.2.1.3)
C. (1.2.3.2 / 1.2.3.2)
D. (2.1.3.2 / 2.1.3.2)

Answer: A

16. An example of a fruit with parietal placentation is:

A. Mango
B. Pawpaw
C. Orange
D. Guava

Answer: B

17. Nitrosomonas is important in the nitrogen cycle because it:

A. converts nitrates to nitrogen gas
B. converts ammonia to nitrites
C. converts nitrites to nitrates
D. fixes nitrogen directly into proteins

Answer: B

18. According to Lamarck’s theory, evolution occurs through:

A. natural selection only
B. mutation and recombination
C. use and disuse and inheritance of acquired characteristics
D. gene flow between populations

Answer: C

19. Which of the following is a bryophyte?

A. Fern
B. Moss
C. Cycad
D. Pine

Answer: B

20. Secondary growth in older dicot roots occurs in the:

A. epidermis
B. cortex
C. vascular cambium
D. endodermis

Answer: C

21. Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus?

A. Cholera
B. Ringworm
C. Typhoid
D. Tuberculosis

Answer: B

22. The structure that looks like a twisted ladder is the:

A. RNA
B. DNA
C. chromosome
D. centriole

Answer: B

23. Desert plants conserve water mainly by:

A. having broad leaves
B. having thick cuticles and reduced leaves
C. increasing transpiration
D. growing in waterlogged soil

Answer: B

24. Leaves perform photosynthesis mainly because they contain:

A. xylem vessels
B. stomata only
C. chlorophyll
D. epidermal cells only

Answer: C

25. The apex predator in an aquatic habitat is the organism that:

A. feeds only on plants
B. occupies the lowest trophic level
C. is at the top of the food chain
D. lives only in freshwater

Answer: C

Government

A system of government where the head of state is also the head of government is known as:

A. Parliamentary system
B. Federal system
C. Presidential system
D. Confederal system

Answer: C

The 1979 Constitution of Nigeria was significant because it introduced:

A. the military system
B. the parliamentary system
C. the presidential system
D. regional government

Answer: C

Which organ of the United Nations (UN) is responsible for maintaining international peace and security?

A. General Assembly
B. International Court of Justice
C. Security Council
D. Secretariat

Answer: C

The body responsible for the recruitment and promotion of civil servants is the:

A. Public Accounts Committee
B. Civil Service Commission
C. Federal Executive Council
D. Judicial Service Commission

Answer: B

A system of government where the central authority is supreme and state or local governments are subordinate is known as:

A. Federal system
B. Unitary system
C. Presidential system
D. Confederal system

Answer: B

The principle of Separation of Powers was popularized by:

A. Thomas Hobbes
B. John Locke
C. Montesquieu
D. Jean Bodin

Answer: C

The Macpherson Constitution of 1951 was significant because it:

A. abolished the legislature
B. introduced a greater degree of Nigerian participation in governance
C. made Nigeria a republic
D. introduced military rule

Answer: B

Under the 1999 Constitution of Nigeria, the power to impeach the President is vested in the:

A. Supreme Court
B. National Assembly
C. Federal Executive Council
D. Council of State

Answer: B

Which of the following is a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council?

A. Nigeria
B. Germany
C. China
D. India

Answer: C

Public corporations can be controlled by:

A. political parties only
B. ministries and relevant government agencies
C. private individuals only
D. foreign investors only

Answer: B

The statutory responsibility of INEC is to:

A. appoint judges
B. conduct elections
C. recruit civil servants
D. approve budgets

Answer: B

One major function of public corporations is to:

A. make laws
B. provide essential public services
C. interpret the constitution
D. conduct foreign policy

Answer: B

One major factor that gave rise to the nationalist movement in Nigeria was:

A. indirect rule
B. missionary activities only
C. colonial discrimination and economic exploitation
D. the abolition of trade

Answer: C

In Nigeria, the annual budget is presented by the:

A. Chief Justice of Nigeria
B. Senate President
C. President
D. Speaker of the House of Representatives

Answer: C

Public corporations are created mainly to:

A. make profit for private owners
B. provide services and control strategic sectors of the economy
C. conduct elections
D. punish political opponents

Answer: B

Which of the following is a major challenge of the civil service?

A. neutrality
B. red-tapism
C. efficiency
D. accountability

Answer: B

The most powerful organ of the United Nations is the:

A. Trusteeship Council
B. General Assembly
C. Security Council
D. Secretariat

Answer: C

One advantage of a one-party system is:

A. it encourages violent opposition
B. it promotes political instability
C. it can ensure quick decision-making and unity
D. it removes all forms of governance

Answer: C

The organization that existed before the United Nations was the:

A. Commonwealth
B. League of Nations
C. African Union
D. ECOWAS

Answer: B

The French West African Federation was divided into:

A. two territories
B. four territories
C. eight territories
D. ten territories

Answer: C

The body responsible for the elimination of corruption in Nigeria is the:

A. NDLEA
B. EFCC
C. NAFDAC
D. NPC

Answer: B

The National Youth Service Corps (NYSC) was established in:

A. 1966
B. 1970
C. 1973
D. 1979

Answer: C

Two major features of a constitution are that it is:

A. temporary and secret
B. supreme and binding on citizens and government
C. religious and cultural only
D. unwritten in all countries

Answer: B

The two main components of sovereignty are:

A. power and territory
B. internal sovereignty and external sovereignty
C. government and opposition
D. authority and legislature

Answer: B

The constitution that recognized the 774 local government councils in Nigeria is the:

A. 1960 Constitution
B. 1963 Constitution
C. 1979 Constitution
D. 1999 Constitution

Answer: D

Cross River State was created in:

A. 1967
B. 1976
C. 1987
D. 1991

Answer: A

The policy of Assimilation was mainly used by the:

A. British
B. Portuguese
C. French
D. Germans

Answer: C

One function of the UN Secretary-General is to:

A. command all national armies
B. act as the chief administrative officer of the UN
C. make laws for all member states
D. remove presidents of member states

Answer: B

The acephalous system of administration was practiced mainly by the:

A. Hausa/Fulani
B. Yoruba
C. Igbo
D. Kanuri

Answer: C

Sarkin Ruwa in the Hausa traditional political system refers to the:

A. chief priest
B. head fisherman
C. war commander
D. tax collector

Answer: B

Public corporations are mainly funded by:

A. only political parties
B. government subventions and revenue generated
C. traditional rulers only
D. foreign ambassadors only

Answer: B

Diplomatic immunity is a limitation to the enforcement of:

A. local criminal jurisdiction over diplomats
B. electoral law
C. party manifestoes
D. budgetary allocation

Answer: A

The first newspaper in Nigeria was:

A. West African Pilot
B. Nigerian Tribune
C. Iwe Irohin
D. Daily Times

Answer: C

Monarchy is a system of government in which:

A. the military rules by force
B. political parties are banned
C. a king or queen is the head of state
D. judges control the executive

Answer: C

Plutocracy is government by:

A. the poor
B. the wealthy
C. soldiers
D. religious leaders

Answer: B

Franchise in government means:

A. military authority
B. the right to vote and be voted for
C. the right to protest only
D. the right to own land

Answer: B

Which of the following is a key feature of sovereignty?

A. dependence on foreign powers
B. supreme authority of the state
C. absence of government
D. lack of population

Answer: B

Who presents the annual appropriation bill before the National Assembly in Nigeria?

A. The President
B. The Chief Justice
C. The Inspector-General of Police
D. The Chairman of INEC

Answer: A

Which of the following is a major function of pressure groups?

A. conducting elections
B. contesting all offices directly
C. influencing government policies
D. writing the constitution alone

Answer: C

Which of the following best describes public opinion?

A. the decision of judges only
B. the views held by a significant number of people on public issues
C. the policy of one political party
D. the views of civil servants only

Answer: B

Economics

If the price of a commodity increases and the total revenue of the seller also increases, the demand for that commodity is said to be:

A. perfectly elastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. relatively inelastic
D. relatively elastic

Answer: C

The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility states that as a consumer consumes more units of a commodity:

A. total utility falls immediately
B. marginal utility eventually decreases
C. price rises automatically
D. demand becomes zero instantly

Answer: B

Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?

A. only one seller
B. product differentiation
C. many buyers and sellers with homogeneous products
D. strong barriers to entry

Answer: C

The Production Possibility Curve (PPC) illustrates the concept of:

A. inflation only
B. scarcity and choice
C. monopoly pricing
D. tax incidence

Answer: B

To combat inflation, the Central Bank of Nigeria (CBN) would likely:

A. reduce interest rates
B. increase money supply
C. increase interest rates
D. reduce taxes only

Answer: C

A market situation where there are only two sellers of a particular commodity is known as:

A. monopoly
B. duopoly
C. oligopoly
D. monopsony

Answer: B

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of a monopoly?

A. high competition
B. low barriers to entry
C. exploitation of consumers through high prices
D. perfect information

Answer: C

A deficit budget occurs when the government’s:

A. revenue is equal to expenditure
B. expenditure exceeds revenue
C. revenue exceeds expenditure
D. imports exceed exports only

Answer: B

Demand is defined as:

A. all goods produced in a country
B. the quantity of a commodity consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price and time
C. the desire for a commodity only
D. goods available in the market

Answer: B

Supply refers to:

A. the quantity of a commodity producers are willing and able to offer for sale at a given price and time
B. the stock of money in a bank
C. goods demanded by consumers
D. imported goods only

Answer: A

One major determinant of demand is:

A. weathering
B. consumer income
C. soil texture
D. pressure group

Answer: B

In a free market economy, price is mainly determined by:

A. the judiciary
B. demand and supply
C. the legislature
D. trade unions only

Answer: B

A market structure with one seller and many buyers is:

A. monopoly
B. duopoly
C. oligopoly
D. perfect competition

Answer: A

One feature of monopolistic competition is:

A. only one seller
B. homogeneous products only
C. product differentiation
D. no competition at all

Answer: C

Which of the following is a macroeconomic issue?

A. pricing of a single product
B. behavior of one consumer
C. unemployment in the entire economy
D. utility from a commodity

Answer: C

Inflation is a persistent rise in the:

A. volume of production
B. general price level
C. exchange of goods only
D. number of consumers

Answer: B

Deflation means:

A. a persistent fall in the general price level
B. increase in money supply
C. rise in taxation only
D. increase in employment only

Answer: A

Which of the following is a function of money?

A. medium of exchange
B. medium of rainfall
C. factor of weather
D. source of constitution

Answer: A

Opportunity cost is the:

A. total amount spent on all goods
B. next best alternative forgone
C. amount of profit earned
D. fixed cost of production

Answer: B

Which of the following is a fixed cost?

A. wages for casual labour
B. cost of raw materials
C. factory rent
D. transport cost per unit

Answer: C

Literature in English

A figure of speech that gives human attributes to non-human things is:

A. metaphor
B. simile
C. personification
D. hyperbole

Answer: C

The point of highest tension or turning point in a play is called the:

A. exposition
B. climax
C. resolution
D. denouement

Answer: B

A poem of fourteen lines with a specific rhyme scheme is a:

A. ballad
B. ode
C. sonnet
D. elegy

Answer: C

“The sun breathed fire on the parched earth” is an example of:

A. irony
B. personification
C. pun
D. litotes

Answer: B

A character whose actions or qualities emphasize those of the protagonist by being the direct opposite is called a:

A. flat character
B. stock character
C. foil
D. clown

Answer: C

A poem that mourns the death of a specific person or laments the tragic nature of life is called:

A. epic
B. elegy
C. lyric
D. sonnet

Answer: B

When a writer uses “in media res,” the story begins:

A. at the end
B. in the middle of the action
C. with a dream
D. with a poem

Answer: B

A comparison using “like” or “as” is known as:

A. metaphor
B. personification
C. simile
D. irony

Answer: C

The pattern of rhymes at the end of lines in a poem is called:

A. stanza
B. rhyme scheme
C. refrain
D. metre

Answer: B

A literary work that tells a long story of heroic deeds is called:

A. elegy
B. satire
C. epic
D. ode

Answer: C

In drama, the instructions to actors written in brackets are known as:

A. chorus
B. soliloquy
C. stage directions
D. monologue

Answer: C

A poem that expresses the personal feelings of the poet is called a:

A. lyric
B. novel
C. farce
D. fable

Answer: A

Which of the following is a major feature of tragedy?

A. it always ends in marriage
B. it focuses on comic relief only
C. it involves the downfall of a central character
D. it has no conflict

Answer: C

The central message or underlying idea in a literary work is known as the:

A. plot
B. setting
C. theme
D. tone

Answer: C

The ordered arrangement of events in a literary work is called:

A. characterization
B. plot
C. mood
D. diction

Answer: B

CRS

Which biblical figure showed complete faith by being ready to sacrifice his only son because God commanded him?

A. Abraham
B. Isaac
C. Jacob
D. Joseph

Answer: A

What is the name of the event when the Holy Spirit came upon the disciples and gave them the ability to speak in many languages?

A. Pentecost
B. Ascension
C. Transfiguration
D. Passover

Answer: A

The contest between Elijah and the prophets of Baal was mainly to show that:

A. Baal was stronger than Yahweh
B. there is only one true God
C. prophets should avoid Mount Carmel
D. fire is dangerous

Answer: B

Jonah was disturbed because:

A. Nineveh was destroyed immediately
B. God showed mercy to Nineveh after they repented
C. he could not travel by sea
D. the king of Nineveh arrested him

Answer: B

The main theme of the book of Amos is:

A. prosperity and celebration
B. social justice and divine judgment
C. military expansion
D. wisdom and romance

Answer: B

Saul employed David mainly because David:

A. was a strong farmer
B. could play the harp skillfully and soothe him
C. was older than Jonathan
D. was a priest

Answer: B

Salvation comes through faith in:

A. Moses
B. the law only
C. Jesus Christ
D. angels

Answer: C

The early church was characterized by:

A. selfishness and division
B. communal living and fellowship
C. idol worship
D. political rivalry

Answer: B

The only ground Jesus gave for divorce was:

A. poverty
B. barrenness
C. sexual immorality
D. disobedience

Answer: C

All the commandments can be summarized into:

A. love for God and love for neighbour
B. fasting and prayer only
C. sacrifice and offerings
D. temple worship only

Answer: A

God called Abraham at the age of:

A. 50 years
B. 60 years
C. 75 years
D. 100 years

Answer: C

The father of David was:

A. Saul
B. Jesse
C. Samuel
D. Obed

Answer: B

During his trial, Pilate asked Jesus:

A. Are you the Son of David?
B. Are you the King of the Jews?
C. Why did you heal on the Sabbath?
D. Where is Lazarus?

Answer: B

Rehoboam was king of:

A. Judah
B. Israel only
C. Edom
D. Moab

Answer: A

Joshua was the son of:

A. Nun
B. Caleb
C. Aaron
D. Eleazar

Answer: A

“Blessed are the meek, for they shall”:

A. see God
B. be called sons of God
C. inherit the earth
D. obtain mercy

Answer: C

Manna was provided in the wilderness of:

A. Judea
B. Sinai
C. Canaan
D. Babylon

Answer: B

Ahab wanted Naboth’s vineyard because:

A. he wanted to build a temple
B. it was close to his palace and he wanted it for a vegetable garden
C. Naboth owed him money
D. Jezebel requested it for worship

Answer: B

The central theme of Paul’s epistle to Philemon is:

A. war and judgment
B. forgiveness and reconciliation
C. prophecy and destruction
D. temple rebuilding

Answer: B

The curtain of the temple tearing at Jesus’ death signifies:

A. the end of Roman rule
B. direct access to God through Christ
C. the destruction of Jerusalem immediately
D. the defeat of the disciples

Answer: B

Computer Studies

Phishing is:

A. a method of catching fish online
B. a cyberattack that tricks users into revealing sensitive information
C. a computer hardware fault
D. a type of antivirus software

Answer: B

The full meaning of FTP is:

A. File Transfer Protocol
B. Fast Transfer Process
C. File Transmission Package
D. Federal Transfer Program

Answer: A

A letter sent online is commonly called:

A. blog
B. email
C. hyperlink
D. webpage

Answer: B

An AI that processes and handles human language is known as:

A. Machine Vision
B. Natural Language Processing
C. Robotics Engineering
D. Expert Hardware

Answer: B

A self-driving car uses AI mainly for:

A. printing documents
B. object detection, obstacle avoidance, and path finding
C. playing music only
D. increasing fuel manually

Answer: B

A robot that acts on its own without direct human control is called an:

A. analog robot
B. autonomous robot
C. mechanical switch
D. office robot

Answer: B

Warm booting means:

A. starting a computer for the first time
B. restarting a computer without turning off the power completely
C. shutting down the operating system permanently
D. formatting the hard drive

Answer: B

Sending a secure hyperlink over the internet commonly uses:

A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SMTP

Answer: B

The major transition from first generation computers to second generation computers was from:

A. transistors to integrated circuits
B. vacuum tubes to transistors
C. integrated circuits to microprocessors
D. abacus to vacuum tubes

Answer: B

The Slide Master in Microsoft PowerPoint is used to:

A. delete all slides
B. insert videos only
C. apply global design changes such as fonts, colours, and logos
D. convert slides to PDF only

Answer: C

Which of the following is one of the essential functions of a robot?

A. sensing
B. cooking
C. marketing
D. sleeping

Answer: A

Which of the following best completes the three essential functions of a robot?

A. sensing, acting, and control/processing
B. typing, printing, and browsing
C. storing, formatting, and deleting
D. charging, sleeping, and moving

Answer: A

1) USE OF ENGLISH

SECTION B: ORAL ENGLISH / STRESS / SOUND

2) MATHEMATICS

3) PHYSICS

4) CHEMISTRY

5) BIOLOGY

Government

Economics

Literature in English

CRS

Computer Studies

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